How to Expand 1+sin(phi)sin(theta) in Spherical Harmonics?

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Homework Help Overview

The original poster seeks to expand the expression 1 + sin(phi)sin(theta) in terms of spherical harmonics, questioning whether this expansion will result in an infinite series and expressing concern over the complexity of spherical harmonics for higher values of l. They also note the imaginary nature of sine terms in spherical harmonics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss rewriting terms to eliminate imaginary components and explore the possibility of using linear combinations of spherical harmonics. There is a focus on identifying appropriate spherical harmonics for the expansion, particularly considering the roles of different l and m values.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided hints and suggestions for approaching the problem, including the use of specific spherical harmonics. There is ongoing exploration of the relationships between different spherical harmonics and their components, with no explicit consensus reached on the final form of the expansion.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention constraints related to homework rules and the complexity of the spherical harmonics involved, as well as the need to clarify the nature of the problem being addressed.

ehrenfest
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Homework Statement


I want to expand 1+sin(phi)sin(theta) in the spherical harmonics. I am not sure if this will be an infinite series or not? If it were infinite that would seem rather difficult because the spherical harmonics get really complicated when l > 3. Also, all of the sine terms in the spherical harmonics are imaginary, so how is this possible?

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution

 
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what have you tried so far?

a hint is tho rewrite e^{i \phi} as \cos \phi + i \sin \phi

And then you can get rid of the i by doing a linear combination of two spherical harmonics with same l but different m.

The series will be finite, it will contain 3 different Y_{l,m}

Now go ahead and try
 
OK. We can get take care of the constant term with Y0,0. For the other term I tried Y2,2 and Y2,1 but that does not get rid of the i. Are you saying I can find two spherical harmonics with exactly the same imaginary term up to a constant? Don't each of the spherical harmonics with the same l have different imaginary parts?
Do I need to use negative m values?
 
why try l = 2 first?.. why not l = 1?..
 
Because Y1,0 does not have an imaginary part, it could not possibly cancel with the imaginary part of Y1,1.
 
Take a look again at the l = 1 spherical harmonics. For each l, you have 2l + 1 spherical harmonics.

Spherical harmonics with l = 2 have sin(theta)^2 ; so can IMPOSSIBLE do anything with those. Spherical harmonics with l = 1 have sin(theta); so I think it is quite obvious..
 
Last edited:
How stupid of me! I see now. Thanks.
 
The answer will be:

1 + \sin \theta \sin \phi = \sqrt{4\pi} + \sqrt{\frac{2\pi}{3}}i \cdot (Y_{1,+1} + Y_{1,-1})

If i did it correct, you got the same?

[edited]
 
Last edited:
I got
1 + \sin \theta \sin \phi = \sqrt{4\pi} + \sqrt{\frac{2\pi}{3}}i \cdot (Y_{1,+1} + Y_{1,-1})
 
  • #10
yes that is correct, because I had i in the denominator on my papers, but wrote wrong here in TeX. Good job!
 
  • #11
I could see that one, but there's something silly I'm missing :(

How would I expand
sin(theta)?

To me it seems only Y^0_1 has the right order, but its a cos(theta) that I cannot convert?!
 
  • #12
silly? now are you asking just for curiosity or is it homework-related?
 
  • #13
Well, its homework. But given by myself.
I was wondering about this splitting of cubic symmetry along the 3 fold diagonal axis. It splits into 2+2+1 energylevels, but the basis system is is along the diagonal and not the z axis anymore so I was trying to project
(3cos^2(theta+45°)-1)*exp(-i*(psi+45°))
back into the usual system.
But now I'm stuck with it. Maybe it's been a hard day today. Just can't see what I'm doing wrong :(
 
  • #14
I don't know either. Try posting the whole problem in its entire length in a new thread. Showing some of the relations you know of and your attempt to solve it. Then someone might be able to help you =)

Btw, I just think you can write \sin ^2\theta = 1 - \cos ^2\theta and take it from there.
 
  • #15
OK. Maybe its something more fundamental.
I can switch between sin^2(a) and cos^2(a), but not to sin(a)cos(a)
But I think I know all trigonometric relations. Yesterday I derived for fun:
sin(a+b+c+d)/cos(a)/cos/(b)/cos(c)/cos(d)=tan(a)+tan(b)+tan(c)+tan(d)+tan(a)tan(b)tan(c)tan(d)(1/tan(a)+1/tan(b)+1/tan(c)+1/tan(d))
Its pretty useless but nice.
 
  • #16
I was rather thinking of

\sin ^2\theta = 1 - \cos ^2\theta

\sin \theta = \sqrt{4\pi Y_{0,0}^2-\frac{4\pi }{3}Y_{1,0}^2}
 
  • #17
Yes, OK. But that's not linear in the spherical harmonics.
Mr Wiki Pedia says
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_harmonics
one can expand linearly. There is also an equation for the coefficients. I'm not in the state of doing integrals now, but I suspect I get zero for all of them.
 
  • #18
no ofcourse its not a linear expansion.

You should in principle be able to expand ANY angular function as a combination of spherical harms-
 

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