How to prove that electric field propagates like a wave?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the propagation of electric fields as waves, referencing Feynman's Lectures on Physics. Participants explore the distinction between static and propagating electromagnetic fields, and the conditions under which electric fields can propagate in a vacuum.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of static versus propagating electric fields, questioning how static fields relate to wave propagation. Some reference Feynman's explanation of disturbance propagation and the role of changing fields in generating waves.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the nature of electromagnetic fields. There is acknowledgment of the complexity of the topic, and some participants express appreciation for the guidance offered by others.

Contextual Notes

Some participants mention specific equations related to electromagnetic waves and the implications of the second time derivative in wave equations. There is also a reference to the diminishing amplitude of waves with distance, which is tied to energy distribution.

Adesh
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I was studying Feynman Lectures on Physics Volume 1 chapter 29. In there he proves that electric field propagates like a wave. Here is my attempt (in image), please tell me my mistake.
Thank you
 

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I think you're getting off track. There are two types of electromagnetic fields: static and propagating. If I have a charge ##Q##, it has an associated static electric field: ##E = \frac{Q}{r^2}##. It does NOT propagate like a wave. It's constant. Similarly, a constant current density such as a current-carrying wire will produce a static magnetic field. That doesn't propagate as a wave, either.

But in empty space, far from any charges, you can still have an electromagnetic field. A changing electric field acts a "source" for the magnetic field. Similarly, a changing magnetic field acts a source for the electric field. So if both the electric field and magnetic field are changing, they can create a self-sustaining wave.

You can't derive that fact from Coulomb's law for static fields (or at least, I don't know how, maybe Feynman did).
 
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Hi Adesh, :welcome: ,

I looked at the lecture and see that Feynman concentrates on ##(t-r/c)## to reason the disturbance propagates outward with speed ##c##. As you calculate, the amplitude diminishes with ##r##, so you get a similarity and not an exact equality.

The ##1/r## has to do with the energy radiated, that has to be distributed over an area that increases with ##r##. As Feynman explains much more clearly in 29.2

So: kudos for your efffort :smile:, point taken, but: read on !
 
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stevendaryl said:
I think you're getting off track. There are two types of electromagnetic fields: static and propagating. If I have a charge ##Q##, it has an associated static electric field: ##E = \frac{Q}{r^2}##. It does NOT propagate like a wave. It's constant. Similarly, a constant current density such as a current-carrying wire will produce a static magnetic field. That doesn't propagate as a wave, either.

But in empty space, far from any charges, you can still have an electromagnetic field. A changing electric field acts a "source" for the magnetic field. Similarly, a changing magnetic field acts a source for the electric field. So if both the electric field and magnetic field are changing, they can create a self-sustaining wave.

You can't derive that fact from Coulomb's law for static fields (or at least, I don't know how, maybe Feynman did).
Thank you for answering me, you can see here the way Feynman did http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_29.html
 
BvU said:
Hi Adesh, :welcome: ,

I looked at the lecture and see that Feynman concentrates on ##(t-r/c)## to reason the disturbance propagates outward with speed ##c##. As you calculate, the amplitude diminishes with ##r##, so you get a similarity and not an exact equality.

The ##1/r## has to do with the energy radiated, that has to be distributed over an area that increases with ##r##. As Feynman explains much more clearly in 29.2

So: kudos for your efffort :smile:, point taken, but: read on !
Thank you for being so kind. I really like your answer.
 
The equations of electromagnetic field in vacuum are

##\displaystyle\frac{\partial^2 \vec{E}}{\partial t^2} - c^2 \vec{\nabla}^2 \vec{E} = 0##

##\displaystyle\frac{\partial^2 \vec{B}}{\partial t^2} - c^2 \vec{\nabla}^2 \vec{B} = 0##

The fact that it's the second time derivative ##\frac{\partial^2}{\partial t^2}## in the equations is what makes these wave equations. Put a partial derivative of any other order in there, and conservation of energy is violated.
 
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