How to Prove This Quantum Mechanics Integral?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a specific integral in quantum mechanics, specifically the integral of the function \(\frac{\sin^2 (pa/\hbar)}{p^2}\) over the entire real line. Participants are exploring methods to demonstrate that this integral equals \(\frac{\pi a}{\hbar}\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss a substitution \(u = pa/\hbar\) to simplify the integral, leading to the equivalent integral \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2 u}{u^2}\,du\). There are inquiries about how to proceed from this point to show that the integral equals \(\pi\). Some mention using the cosine double angle formula and integration by parts as potential strategies.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their thoughts on substitutions and transformations. Some have proposed methods involving integration by parts, while others are questioning how to finalize the proof. There is no explicit consensus on the approach yet, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

One participant raises a question about the appropriateness of the thread's placement in the forum, indicating a potential overlap with homework-related queries. This reflects an ongoing consideration of the forum's guidelines regarding homework help.

perishingtardi
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Mod note: Moved from the math technical sections.
I need to show that
\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin^2 (pa/\hbar)}{p^2} \, dp = \frac{\pi a}{\hbar}.
I haven't got a clue how to integrate this function! Any help would be much appreciated thanks.
 
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I've found through the transformation u=pa/\hbar that it is equivalent to showing
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2 u}{u^2}\,du = \pi, if that helps anyone.
 
You've got your substitution and your integral.

All you have to do is figure out p and dp in terms of u and du.

The algebra is really simple.
 
SteamKing said:
You've got your substitution and your integral.

All you have to do is figure out p and dp in terms of u and du.

The algebra is really simple.

Yeah I did that substitution myself to make it easier... now how do I show that the integral is equal to pi??
 
Using the cosine of double angle formula, and then integration by parts, this can be reduced to integrals of $$ \frac {\sin x} {x} $$
 
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Under a change of variable x = pa/h:

\frac{\hbar}{a}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{sin^2 x}{x^2}dx

As suggested you can apply integration by parts and then sine double angle rule to obtain

\frac{\hbar}{a}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{sin(2x)}{x}dx

The integral below has many different proofs, few of them are here
\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{sin(ωx)}{x}dx=\pi for any ω > 0.
 
OFF-TOPIC:

Can someone tell me what is the difference between a question asked here and a question asked on the homework forums?

This is an honest question. For example, shouldn't this question ("Difficult integral") be in the homework section?

Sorry for the off topic perishingtardi
 
Crake,
You are correct. As the sticky says at the top of this forum section, "This forum is not for homework or any textbook-style questions."

I am moving this thread to the Homework section.
 

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