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lema21
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Homework Statement
Prove following theorem by expressing all the binomial coefficients in terms of factorials and then simplifying algebraically: For any positive integer n and r=1, 2, …, n-1; (n over r) = (n-1 over r) + (n-1 over r-1).
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I really don't know what to do for this problem. I looked at similar threads but couldn't seem to grasp the idea of it. I would like help on how to start.
 
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Yes, I just looked at a youtube video and I saw that in order to prove this type of problem I would have to apply the formula that you stated to (n-1 over r) + (n-1 over r-1). And I did that and got [ (n-1)! / (r!(n-1-r)!) ] + [ (n-1)! / ((r-1)!(n-r)!) ] but ended getting an extremely long expression which is wrong (I think) because aren't I supposed to get (n over r) = (n over r) as my answer?
 
Yes after you work algebraically that sum of the two fractions of factorials you are supposed to get ##\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}##.
To start working towards the right direction, multiply the first fraction by ##\frac{n-r}{n-r}## and the second fraction by ##\frac{r}{r}## and tell me what you get.
 
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Delta2 said:
Yes after you work algebraically that sum of the two fractions of factorials you are supposed to get ##\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}##.
To start working towards the right direction, multiply the first fraction by ##\frac{n-r}{n-r}## and the second fraction by ##\frac{r}{r}## and tell me what you get.
I got 2(n+1)! / (r-1)! (n-1-r!)
 
lema21 said:
I got 2(n+1)! / (r-1)! (n-1-r!)
Hmm can't tell where your mistake is unless you post the in between steps, but I think you did something terribly wrong because you should get in the common denominator of the two fractions ##r!(n-r)!## not ##(r-1)!(n-1-r)!##.
 
Oh, my previous reply was my simplified answer after adding both fractions. I don't see how you simplified the denominator from the middle to the last part.
 
lema21 said:
Oh, my previous reply was my simplified answer after adding both fractions. I don't see how you simplified the denominator from the middle to the last part.
Oh nevermind... I get it.
 
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For the first fraction I got (n-r)(n-1)! / r!(n-r)!
 
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ok so now the denominators of the two fractions are equal and what we want them to be (remember we want to prove that the sum is equal to ##\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}##), we have to work the numerator of the sum of the two fractions. What do you get there?
 
I got (n-r)(n-1)! + r(n-1)!
 
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Okay so I factored out the (n-1)! and got (n-1)! [(n-r)+r] = n(n-1)!
 
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n!
 
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Thank you so much for your help :) I really do appreciate it.
 
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