Cyosis said:
If I am not mistaken you're wondering where [itex]\tau=\sqrt{t^2-x^2/c^2}[/itex] comes from. Here [itex]\tau[/itex] is the proper timer. You could read this directly off the metric or compare the proper time expression [itex]\tau=t/\gamma[/itex] and see that they are the same.
Now, we are getting somewhere. Exactly what is proper time. Is it some mythical frame of reference in which objects do not move but just "get older" and that all other frames of reference move at a velocity in relation to this mythical frame?
In that case it is easy to uderstand that [itex]\tau=t/\gamma[/itex] in which
t is the elapsed time in the "moving" frame. If that were so, then the hyperbolic relationship becomes obvious.
For given [itex]\tau[/itex] [itex]1/\gamma = \sqrt{(1-v^2/c^2)}[/itex]
thus [itex]\tau=t\sqrt{(1-v^2/c^2)}[/itex]
[itex]\tau=\sqrt{(t^2-v^2t^2/c^2)}[/itex] but vt = x
[itex]\tau=\sqrt{(t^2-x^2/c^2)}[/itex] and
[itex]\tau^2=t^2-x^2/c^2[/itex] for all x and t relating to a given [itex]\tau[/itex] and the hyperbolic relationship is obvious.
But, now, where does your original definition or derivation of [itex]\tau[/itex] come from? It does appear on page 100 of AP French's
Special Relativity in an obtuse way. It appears that the elapsed time in the moving frame
t is greater than the elapsed time in the resting frame [itex]\tau[/itex] by his equations.
Am I getting somewhere?