Hyperbolic Substituion. I am wrong?

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SUMMARY

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function \(\int \sinh(2x) \cosh(2x) \, dx\). The initial approach using the substitution \(u = \sinh(2x)\) is valid, yielding the result \(\frac{1}{4} \sinh^2(2x) + C\). However, an alternative substitution \(u = 2x\) simplifies the integral further, leading to \(\frac{1}{8} \cosh(4x) + \text{Constant}\), which is equivalent to the original result, differing only by a constant. The discussion emphasizes that both methods are correct and yield the same indefinite integral.

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Homework Statement

[tex]\int \;\sinh(2x) \cosh(2x) dx[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I let u = sinh(2x), du = 2cosh(2x)dx

Integrating I shuold get[tex]\frac{1}{4} sinh^2 (2x) + C[/tex]

But http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=Integrate[cosh%282x%29%28sinh%282x%29%29%2Cx]

says I need to let u = 2x first. Why? I don't think i am wrong, my algebra looked correct.
 
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No, you don't need to do that, you just can.

If you let u= 2x, then, of course, dx= (1/2) du so your integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\int sinh(u)cosh(u)du[/tex]
Then let v= sinh(u) so that dv= cosh(u)du and the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\int v dv= \frac{1}{4}v^2+ C= \frac{1}{4}sinh^2(u)+ C= \frac{1}{4}sinh^2(2x)+ C[/tex]
just as you have.
That's just using two consecutive substitutions rather than combining them as you did.

Of course, you could do it the other way two: let u= cosh(2x) so that du= 2sinh(x)dx and the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{2}u^2du= \frac{1}{4}cosh^2(2x)+ D[/tex]

Because [itex]cosh^2(2x)= sinh^2(2x)+ 1[/itex] that is exactly the same thing with a difference constant.

I believe your wolframalpha reference gives the integral as
[tex]\frac{1}{8}cosh(4x)+ Constant[/tex]
which looks very different but is actually the same as your result.

Remember that
[tex]sinh(x)= \frac{e^x- e^{-x}}{2}[/tex]

Squaring that:
[tex]sinh^2(x)= \frac{(e^x)^2- 2e^xe^{-x}+ (e^{-x})^2}{4}= \frac{e^{2x}- 2+ e^{-2x}}{4}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{1}{2}\frac{e^{2x}+ e^{-2x}}{2}- \frac{1}{2}= \frac{1}{2}cosh(2x)- \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
so that
[tex]\frac{1}{4}sinh^2(2x)= \frac{1}{8}cosh(4x)- \frac{1}{8}[/tex]
differing from the original form only by a constant.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Oh right, we are doing an indefinite integral here.
 

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