Hypergeometric function. Summation question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a summation involving hypergeometric functions and the relationship between series and their closed forms. Participants are exploring how to demonstrate the equivalence of two series involving the Pochhammer symbol and the gamma function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to express the Pochhammer symbol in terms of factorials and question how to proceed from there. Others introduce the concept of a Maclaurin expansion and discuss the implications of the binomial expansion for non-integer values.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the nature of the series and exploring different mathematical approaches. There is an emphasis on verifying the application of the binomial expansion and clarifying the conditions under which it holds.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the condition |x| < 1 for the convergence of the series and the implications of using the factorial definition of binomial coefficients for non-integer values.

LagrangeEuler
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Homework Statement


It is very well known that ## \sum^{\infty}_{n=0}x^n=\frac{1}{1-x}##. How to show that
## \sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{(a)_n}{n!}x^n=\frac{1}{(1-x)^a}##
Where ##(a)_n=\frac{\Gamma(a+n)}{\Gamma(a)}##
[/B]

Homework Equations


## \Gamma(x)=\int^{\infty}_0 e^{-t}t^{x-1}dt##

The Attempt at a Solution


## \frac{(a)_n}{n!}=\frac{a(a+1)...(a+n-1)}{n!}##
Not sure how to go further.[/B]
 
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Let's call for ##\alpha < 0## : ##f_\alpha(x)= (1-x)^\alpha## and ## R_{n,\alpha}(x) = f_\alpha(x) - \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{f_\alpha ^ {(k)} (0)}{k!} x^k ##

Can you explain why ##|x| < 1 ## and ##x## in a neighborhood of 0 implies ##R_{n,\alpha}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{(x-t)^n}{n!} f_\alpha ^{(n+1)}(t) \ dt##. Then show that ##\lim_{n\to \infty} R_{n,\alpha}(x) = 0 ##
 
LagrangeEuler said:

Homework Statement


It is very well known that ## \sum^{\infty}_{n=0}x^n=\frac{1}{1-x}##. How to show that
## \sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{(a)_n}{n!}x^n=\frac{1}{(1-x)^a}##
Where ##(a)_n=\frac{\Gamma(a+n)}{\Gamma(a)}##

[/B]

Homework Equations


## \Gamma(x)=\int^{\infty}_0 e^{-t}t^{x-1}dt##

The Attempt at a Solution


## \frac{(a)_n}{n!}=\frac{a(a+1)...(a+n-1)}{n!}##
Not sure how to go further.[/B]

Just evaluate and simplify the ##n##th term of the Maclaurin expansion of ##f(x) = (1-x)^{-a}##.

Basically, you are being asked to verify that the binomial expansion of ##(1-x)^n## applies to non-integer and/or negative values of ##n##. However, you cannot use the "factorial" definition of the binomial coefficient ##C^n_k## when ##n## is not a positive integer; instead, you need to use the explicit definition
C^n_k = \frac{n (n-1) \cdots (n-k+1)}{k!}
for integers ##k \geq 0##.
 
Thx a lot.
 

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