I can see how it works but how do i prove it?

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The discussion centers on proving the relationship between the Rayleigh quotient p(x) and the bounds L1 and Ln. The user identifies that p(x) is smaller than L1 and larger than Ln but struggles to provide a formal proof. A suggested approach involves replacing all Li with Ln, leveraging the established inequality Li ≥ Ln for all i. This method aims to clarify the bounds of the Rayleigh quotient in the context of linear algebra.

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[PLAIN]http://img708.imageshack.us/img708/8725/mathhelp.gif


I can kinda see that p(x) will be smaller than L1 and larger than Ln, but I have no idea of how to prove it. As a side note; p(x) is really the rayleigh quotient.

Please help, I sat up till very late last night, just looking at it without doing any progress :s
 
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for one way, how about trying replacing all the Li by Ln, noting Li>=Ln for all i?
 

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