If: 1^x=1^y and as: 1^2=1^99 then: 1=99

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The discussion centers on the mathematical assertion that if 1^x equals 1^y, then it implies 1 equals 99, using the example of 1^2 equating to 1^99. Participants question the validity of this logic, noting that using constants instead of variables leads to flawed conclusions. The conversation also touches on the implications of functions and their outputs, suggesting that constant functions do not satisfy the condition for unique outputs. Humor is injected into the discussion with playful remarks about the absurdity of equating 2 and 99. Ultimately, the thread highlights the importance of careful mathematical reasoning and the pitfalls of misinterpretation.
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if:
1^x=1^y
and as:
1^2=1^99
then:
1=99
 
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Why do think this is true?

Since 1*0=99*0, do you consider this as proof of your assertion as well?
 
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The log of your equation would beg to differ... EDIT: except you consistently used 1, not a variable. Duh! Mondays are rubbish. Anyway, shouldn't that read 2 = 99?
 
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I don't know if it's a joke or not.
If you have a function f(x) such that f(x_0) \neq f(x_1), for all x_0 \neq x_1. Just in that case, you will have f(x) = f(y) \Leftrightarrow x = y
Some function like :f(x) = 0x, f(x) = 1 ^ x, f(x) = x ^ 0 (x \in \mathbb{R} - \{ 0 \}). You cannot have f(x) = f(y) \Leftrightarrow x = y. Why? Because in that 3 examples:
\forall x, f(x) = const
Viet Dao,
 
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sin(0) = sin(2 pi)

Oh no! 2 pi = 0, meaning pi = 0, which means circles don't exist!

If only there was a flaw in the logic...
 
nabodit said:
1^2=1^99
then:
1=99
LHS = 1*1 = 1
RHS = 1*1*1* ...(ninety five times) *1 = 1
LHS = 1 = RHS

How do you go from line (1) to line (2) ?

nabodit : If you have a question to ask, ask it now.
 
Reading this really brightened up my day. :smile:
 
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