If b | a(n-a) can one say b | n

  • Thread starter Thread starter icantadd
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if \( b | a!(n-a)! \), then \( b | n! \). The proof utilizes the properties of combinations, specifically \( nCa \), and employs mathematical induction on \( b \). The conclusion is that since \( a!(n-a)! \) can be expressed in terms of \( n! \) and \( b \), it follows that \( b \) is a divisor of \( n! \). The discussion also touches on the relationship between factorials and combinations, reinforcing the divisibility argument.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of factorial notation and properties
  • Familiarity with divisibility concepts in number theory
  • Knowledge of combinations, specifically binomial coefficients
  • Experience with mathematical induction techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of binomial coefficients and their applications in combinatorics
  • Learn advanced techniques in mathematical induction
  • Explore the relationship between factorials and divisibility in number theory
  • Investigate the implications of the combinatorial identity \( n! = nCa \cdot a!(n-a)! \)
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying combinatorics, and anyone interested in number theory and factorial properties.

icantadd
Messages
109
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Suppose b | a!(n-a)! and prove that b | n!

Homework Equations



m | n <=> n = am

The Attempt at a Solution



b | a!(n-a)! ,so that
a!(n-a)! = bs, so that
a!(n-a)!(nCa) = bs(nCa) (nCa is a combinations of n items)
n! = bs(nCa)
And so b is obviously a divisor of n!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
We can show a!b! divides (a+b)!

WLOG assume a > b,

First, make the following observation,

[tex]\frac{(a+b)!}{a!b!} = \frac{(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1) b!}{a!b!} = \frac{(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1)}{a!}[/tex]

Now, by induction on b, if b=1,
[tex](a+b)! = (a+1)! = (a+1)a! = (a+1)a!b![/tex]
So by definition we have that a!b! divides (a+b)!

So assume the result holds for b, and we will show the result holds for b+1. Now, consider,

[tex]\frac{(a+b+1)!}{a!(b+1)!} = \frac{(a+b+1)(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1)!}{a!(b+1)!} [/tex]


Next, we will be a bit tricky by bracketing things off right.


[tex]\frac{(a+b+1)(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1)b!}{(b+1)!a!} = \frac{(a+b+1)b!(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1)}{(b+1)!a!}[/tex]

Now, it suffices to show the above is an integer. First let's consider what our inductive hypothesis tells us. It says that a! divides (a+b)(a+b-1) ... (b+1). So there is some integer d such that,

[tex]\frac{(a+b)(a+b-1) \ldots (b+1)}{a!} = d[/tex]

Now we have to show the following is an integer,but

[tex]\frac{(a+b+1)b!}{(b+1)!} = \frac{(a + (b+1))b!}{(b+1)!} = \frac{ab! + (b+1)!}{(b+1)!}[/tex]

Err, ?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K