- #1

- 15

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[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(k) e^{i\mathbf{k}.\mathbf{r}} d\mathbf{k} =0 [/tex]

then is

[tex]\ f(k)=0[/tex] ?

Is it correct to say that this is an expansion in an orthonormal basis, [tex]\ e^{ik.r} [/tex] , and so linear independence demands that f(k) be zero for all k?