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If variance is 0, then p(x=c) = 1 c is constant

  1. Dec 15, 2005 #1
    I think it is easy but I can't figure it out. :(
    any help?
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 16, 2005 #2


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    Are you trying to prove or disprove the thread title?

    Is this homework?
  4. Dec 16, 2005 #3

    matt grime

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    You may suppose that the expectation is zero, you know, that makes it (even) easier.
  5. Dec 16, 2005 #4


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    I would advise figuring out what you're trying to prove before working on the proof. (The sentence in the title is not a well-posed question!)
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