alejandrito29
- 148
- 0
In a paper says that the limit when \alpha \to 0 with \sigma = \pm 1 of:
\frac{1}{4 \alpha}(1 + \sigma \sqrt{1 - \frac{8}{l^2} \alpha } )
has a well defined limit only when \sigma = - 1,
¿why??...I don't understand
\frac{1}{4 \alpha}(1 + \sigma \sqrt{1 - \frac{8}{l^2} \alpha } )
has a well defined limit only when \sigma = - 1,
¿why??...I don't understand