I'm looking at Einstein's "Simple Derivation of the Lorentz Transformation"(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

http://www.bartleby.com/173/a1.html

and am puzzled. I see how equation (3) is a sufficient condition for (1) implying (2) and vice versa, but...it also seemsmorethan sufficient, doesn't it? He's assuming a linear relationship between x-ct and x'-ct' without saying why this should be so.

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# In the back of the popular Relativity book

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