Independence of generalized coordinates and generalized velocities

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the independence of generalized coordinates and generalized velocities within the context of Lagrangian mechanics and phase space diagrams. Participants explore how these concepts relate to the formulation of the Lagrangian and the derivation of the Euler-Lagrange equations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants inquire about understanding the independence of generalized coordinates and velocities in relation to phase space diagrams.
  • One participant notes that Lagrangian mechanics analyzes the functional form of the Lagrangian to derive the Euler-Lagrange equations, suggesting that coordinates and their time derivatives revert to their usual roles at that point.
  • Another participant requests a link to a previous post for further clarification on the topic.
  • A participant expresses difficulty in accessing previous posts from their mobile device.
  • One participant proposes that generalized coordinates and velocities can be treated as independent variables when studying the functional form of the Lagrangian, providing a mathematical example of the Lagrangian in terms of these variables.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion contains multiple viewpoints regarding the independence of generalized coordinates and velocities, with no clear consensus reached among participants.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference previous discussions and posts, indicating that this topic has been explored multiple times, but specific assumptions or definitions related to independence are not fully articulated.

VVS2000
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TL;DR
I was studying the derivation of the lagrangian formalism from Goldstein's textbook for mechanics and at one point they made a claim that generalized co-ordinates and velocities are independent and the derivative of one with respect to the other is zero.
How can I make sense of this and further how to think of this in the context of phase space diagrams?
 
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This question has been asked a number of times. Lagrangian mechanics analyses the functional form of the Lagrangian in order to derive the Euler Lagrange equations. At which point the coordinates and derivatives revert to their usual role, with one the time derivative of the other.

If you search my recent posts for the text in italics you should find a more complete answer.
 
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PeroK said:
This question has been asked a number of times. Lagrangian mechanics analyses the functional form of the Lagrangian in order to derive the Euler Lagrange equations. At which point the coordinates and derivatives revert to their usual role, with one the time derivative of the other.

If you search my recent posts for the text in italics you should find a more complete answer.
Well you're apparently a P-F galaxy so can you provide the link to your post regarding this topic?
 
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VVS2000 said:
Well you're apparently a P-F galaxy so can you provide the link to your post regarding this topic?
I've never found a way to do it from my phone.
 
PeroK said:
I've never found a way to do it from my phone.
Ok, if not too much trouble, can you explain how they're independent here itself?
 
VVS2000 said:
Ok, if not too much trouble, can you explain how they're independent here itself?
You treat them as independent variables and study the functional form of the Lagrangian. In the simplest case you have$$L(x,\dot x) = \frac 1 2 m\dot x^2 - V(x)$$Effectively what you do is say, okay, let's study a function of the form$$L(X,Y) = \frac 1 2 mY^2 - V(X)$$That's perfectly legitimate mathematically.
 

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