Graduate Independence of generalized coordinates and generalized velocities

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the independence of generalized coordinates and generalized velocities within the framework of Lagrangian mechanics. It emphasizes the analysis of the Lagrangian's functional form to derive the Euler-Lagrange equations, where coordinates and their time derivatives are treated as independent variables. The example provided illustrates a Lagrangian of the form \(L(x, \dot{x}) = \frac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 - V(x)\), demonstrating the mathematical legitimacy of treating these variables independently. This foundational understanding is crucial for interpreting phase space diagrams.

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  • Lagrangian mechanics
  • Euler-Lagrange equations
  • Phase space diagrams
  • Mathematical functions and derivatives
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VVS2000
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TL;DR
I was studying the derivation of the lagrangian formalism from Goldstein's textbook for mechanics and at one point they made a claim that generalized co-ordinates and velocities are independent and the derivative of one with respect to the other is zero.
How can I make sense of this and further how to think of this in the context of phase space diagrams?
 
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This question has been asked a number of times. Lagrangian mechanics analyses the functional form of the Lagrangian in order to derive the Euler Lagrange equations. At which point the coordinates and derivatives revert to their usual role, with one the time derivative of the other.

If you search my recent posts for the text in italics you should find a more complete answer.
 
PeroK said:
This question has been asked a number of times. Lagrangian mechanics analyses the functional form of the Lagrangian in order to derive the Euler Lagrange equations. At which point the coordinates and derivatives revert to their usual role, with one the time derivative of the other.

If you search my recent posts for the text in italics you should find a more complete answer.
Well you're apparently a P-F galaxy so can you provide the link to your post regarding this topic?
 
VVS2000 said:
Well you're apparently a P-F galaxy so can you provide the link to your post regarding this topic?
I've never found a way to do it from my phone.
 
PeroK said:
I've never found a way to do it from my phone.
Ok, if not too much trouble, can you explain how they're independent here itself?
 
VVS2000 said:
Ok, if not too much trouble, can you explain how they're independent here itself?
You treat them as independent variables and study the functional form of the Lagrangian. In the simplest case you have$$L(x,\dot x) = \frac 1 2 m\dot x^2 - V(x)$$Effectively what you do is say, okay, let's study a function of the form$$L(X,Y) = \frac 1 2 mY^2 - V(X)$$That's perfectly legitimate mathematically.
 
In sci-fi when an author is talking about space travellers or describing the movement of galaxies they will say something like “movement in space only means anything in relation to another object”. Examples of this would be, a space ship moving away from earth at 100 km/s, or 2 galaxies moving towards each other at one light year per century. I think it would make it easier to describe movement in space if we had three axis that we all agree on and we used 0 km/s relative to the speed of...

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