Induced EMF and a circular loop of wire

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the induced electromotive force (emf) in a 25-turn circular loop of wire with a diameter of 1 meter, flipped 180 degrees in a magnetic field of 50 microteslas over 0.2 seconds. The equation used to determine the emf is -dB/dt * A = V, which yields a non-zero result, while the alternative equation NABwsin(wt) = V produces zero due to incorrect application. The participants clarify that the first equation accounts for the change in magnetic flux, while the second equation is misapplied by only considering the final state.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
  • Familiarity with the concept of magnetic flux
  • Knowledge of circular loop geometry and area calculation
  • Basic calculus for differentiation and time rates of change
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Faraday's Law and its applications in electromagnetic induction
  • Learn about the relationship between magnetic flux and induced emf
  • Explore the derivation and application of the equation V = -d/dt(BA)
  • Investigate the effects of angular displacement on induced emf in loops
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anonymousphys
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Homework Statement


A 25-turn circular loop of wire has a diameter of 1m. In 0.2 seconds it is flipped 180 degrees at a location where the magnitude of the Earth's magnetic field is 50 micro T. What is the emf generated in the loop?

Homework Equations


-(dB/dt)(A)=V

The Attempt at a Solution


When I use NABwsin(wt)=V, I get zero. When I use -(dB/dt)(A)=V, I get a non-zero number. I believe the 2nd equation works but why doesn't the first work?

Thanks for any help.
 
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anonymousphys said:

Homework Statement


A 25-turn circular loop of wire has a diameter of 1m. In 0.2 seconds it is flipped 180 degrees at a location where the magnitude of the Earth's magnetic field is 50 micro T. What is the emf generated in the loop?


Homework Equations


-(dB/dt)(A)=V


The Attempt at a Solution


When I use NABwsin(wt)=V, I get zero. When I use -(dB/dt)(A)=V, I get a non-zero number. I believe the 2nd equation works but why doesn't the first work?

Thanks for any help.

Where does the first equation come from? If you used d/dt[BA] = V is B changing?
 
Thanks for the reply. NABwsin(wt)=V comes from taking the derivative of NABcos(wt)=magnetic flux. The 2nd equation should be taking into account the change in angle. Shouldn't both equations lead to the same answer?
 
anonymousphys said:
Thanks for the reply. NABwsin(wt)=V comes from taking the derivative of NABcos(wt)=magnetic flux. The 2nd equation should be taking into account the change in angle. Shouldn't both equations lead to the same answer?

I believe they should. How did you get 0 for the first equation? I do not get 0.
 
Show the work on both because when I use the 2nd equation all that happens is I derive the first equation.
 
zachzach said:
I believe they should. How did you get 0 for the first equation? I do not get 0.

w=pi/(.2)
sin(wt) when t=(.2) equals 0.

Hm..I think I'm not using the equation correctly?
 
Doh! I see what you mean :/.
 
Here's my thoughts: By plugging in wt only for the final time, you only are calculating the emf produced at that instant. So maybe you should use:

V = -d/dt(BA) = -[BA(Final) - BA(Initial)]/[t(Final) - t(Initial)]

sorry cannot get fraction in latex to work, I am a newb.
 
Last edited:
<br /> <br /> V = -\frac{d}{dt}[BA] = -[\frac{BA_f - BA_i}{t_f - t_i}]<br /> <br />

I did it in latex :).
 

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