Induced emf in various rectangular loops

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The discussion focuses on the induced electromotive force (emf) in three rectangular loops moving into a magnetic field. It concludes that the induced current will differ among the loops, with loop C having the highest current due to its larger height, which increases the area swept through the magnetic field. The current in loops A and B will be equal and lower than that in loop C. According to Lenz's law, the current flows counterclockwise in all loops as they enter the magnetic field. The analysis confirms that while loops A and C have induced currents, loop B does not until it fully enters the field.
Quadrat
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Homework Statement


[/B]
Three conducting loops, all with the same resistance ##R## move towards a uniform and constant magnetic field, all with the same velocity ##v##. Their relative sizes can be identified by the grid. As the loops move into the magnetic field an induced current begins to flow.

a) Will the induced current be the same [in the loops] or not? If they differ- in which loop is the current the highest. Motivate your answer. [see picture below]

b) Will the current flow counterclockwise or clockwise? Motivate your answer.

loops.jpg


Homework Equations


Faraday's law: ##ε=(-dΦ_B/dt)##
Magnetix flux: ##Φ_B=∫B⋅dA####=BAcosθ##
Lenz's law: (the minus sign in Faraday's law)
Ohm's law: ##V=RI##

The Attempt at a Solution


So I take it that it's the moment as the loops just enter the magnetic field. Time or orientation is not specified. Since the B-field and the dA is parallel ##(cos(0)=1)## we have that the magnetic flux ##Φ_B## is ##B*dA##.

If we take the height (in the y-direction) to be ##l## and the width (in the x-direction) to be ##x## then we can write the area ##A## as ##x*l## and since ##l## is constant the area depends on how far the loop has entered the magnetic field. We take the amount in the x-direction that has entered the field to be ##dx##.

Now we have ##Φ_B=B*dA=B*dx*l##. And when we take the derivative with respect to time to calculate the Emf we get: ##ε=(-dΦ_B/dt)=B*l*(dx/dt)##

We note that dx/dt is just velocity and we can rewrite ##ε=(-dΦ_B/dt)=Blv##

So my answers are:

This means that the length of the wire doesn't matter, only the height ##l##. This would mean that the induced current is greater in ##C## and lower but equally so in ##A## and ##B##.

Due to Lenz's law the current flows counterclockwise in the loops as they're drawn to create a magnetic field that opposes the B-field in the drawing.

------------------------

Now here's where I get worried if I missed out on anything important.

When the loops have moved JUST over one whole grid unit into the magnetic field there's no change in magnetix flux through two of the loops so there's no induced emf in them. Loop ##B## still has one grid unit to move before this happens so at this moment the current ##I## in ##A## and ##C## is 0. But not in ##B##.

Since the height in ##C## is ##2l## (compared to the other two loops) i take it that when all three loops have moved one grid unit into the field (just at the moment where there's still change in magnetic flux in all three loops) the current in ##C## is twice as large as in both ##A## and ##B##.

Did I do anything crazy here? Did I miss out on any details or cases which makes this false or did I get it right?Thanks for reading!
 
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Looks good. C, however, is twice as large from the moment they enter to the moment just before C is fully inside the field. Assuming v is constant, the emf is constant of the domain of your emf function. (Your function is only valid from just after the loops enter the field to just before they are fully in, and the same with exiting [ - sign])
 
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You shoul use Faraday's law: ε=-\frac{d∅}{dt} => In the same Δt, the loop sweeps an area which is the biggest, this loop has the highest ε. So the current the highest.
 
Hamal_Arietis said:
You shoul use Faraday's law: ε=-\frac{d∅}{dt}
Isn't that what he did?
 
BiGyElLoWhAt said:
Looks good. C, however, is twice as large from the moment they enter to the moment just before C is fully inside the field. Assuming v is constant, the emf is constant of the domain of your emf function. (Your function is only valid from just after the loops enter the field to just before they are fully in, and the same with exiting [ - sign])

Cool, thanks! Yeah so the emf in ##C## is twice that of ##A## and ##B## during the whole period that all the loops still are subject to an induced emf, right? =)
 
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Si, senor(/ita).
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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