EngWiPy
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Hi,
Is the following inequality true for x>0:
Pr[X1<x]<Pr[X2<x] for X1<X2?
Is the following inequality true for x>0:
Pr[X1<x]<Pr[X2<x] for X1<X2?
disregardthat said:No, they can be equal for some distributions.
Office_Shredder said:Yes, that's always true. What disregardthat was pointing out is simply that the probabilities might be equal, which you have in this post but didn't have in your OP. For example consider the stupid random variable which always takes the value of 1. Then the sum of the L largest is L, and L/n*mean is L as well. so your probabilities are either both 0 or both 1 depending on what the value of x is