Injectivity of a linear operator

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D_Miller
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Technically this isn't homework, but just something I saw another user state without proof in a very different thread. I believe, however, that it is specific enough to pass as a "homework question" so I thought I'd pretend that it was and post it here, because I'm getting a bit frustrated with it:

Let f be a continuous, complex-valued function on [0, 1] and define a linear operator [tex]M_f[/tex] on [tex]L^2[0,1][/tex] by [tex](M_f g)(x)=f(x)g(x)[/tex]. Then
(a) [tex]M_f[/tex] is bounded and [tex]||M_f||=||f||_{\infty}[/tex].
(b) Suppose that [tex]M_f[/tex] is one-to-one. Then the range of [tex]M_f[/tex] is closed if and only if [tex]f(x)=0[/tex] for all x∈[0,1]. In that case [tex]M_f[/tex] is one-to-one and
onto, and the inverse map is bounded.

Part (a) is rather trivial, but part (b) bugs me. I have never seen this result before, and I cannot seem to prove it. My original idea was to use the open mapping theorem in relation to the kernel of the operator, but I couldn't make it work. I still think the open mapping theorem or a similar result is the right way forward, but I would very much appreciate it if someone could write out a proof.

Oh, and if it could be of help to anyone, the injectivity of [tex]M_f[/tex] follows when the set of zeroes of f has measure 0.
 
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I don't understand. If f(x)=0 for all x in [0,1] then [tex]M_f=0[/tex], so how can it be one-to-one?
 
One quick observation is (that you probably know about) is that if the range is closed then the inverse operator (restricted to the range) is bounded, therefore f must never vanish. Conversely, if f never vanish, then the inverse exist on the whole space, thus, in particular, the range is closed. I hope the above is correct and that you will be able to fill the holes.
 
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So, what's wrong with that?