Integral formula for vector potential

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the integral formula for vector potential, specifically the equation \nabla\times\int d^3y\;(V(y)\times\nabla)\frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = -4\pi V(x), where V:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}^3 is a test function. The user attempts to prove this formula by reducing it to a summation involving the Levi-Civita symbol and derivatives, ultimately encountering challenges with the second derivative term. The discussion concludes that under the condition \nabla\cdot V=0, the integral simplifies, confirming the equivalence of the formulas.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector calculus, particularly curl and divergence operations.
  • Familiarity with the Levi-Civita symbol and its properties.
  • Knowledge of Green's functions and their role in potential theory.
  • Experience with integration by parts in multiple dimensions.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Levi-Civita symbol in tensor calculus.
  • Learn about Green's functions and their applications in solving partial differential equations.
  • Explore the concept of vector potentials in electromagnetism and fluid dynamics.
  • Investigate integration techniques in multiple dimensions, focusing on integration by parts.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers working with vector fields, particularly those involved in electromagnetism and fluid dynamics, will benefit from this discussion.

jostpuur
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_potential

The Wikipedia article is mentioning an interesting formula for defining vector potentials. Isn't that the same thing as a formula

[tex] \nabla\times\int d^3y\;(V(y)\times\nabla)\frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = -4\pi V(x),[/tex]

where [tex]V:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}^3[/tex] is some test function, and nablas are derivatives with respect to x? I tried to prove this, and reduced it first to a formula

[tex] \sum_{j,k,m=1}^3 \epsilon_{ijk}\epsilon_{lmk} \partial_j \partial_m \frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = -4\pi\delta_{il}\delta^3(x - y).[/tex]

This formula is to interpreted so that actually there should be an integral with some test function, and at least other one of the derivative operators should be somewhere else, like outside the integral, or acting on the test function with minus sign.

These formulas should be equivalent:

[tex] \Big(\nabla\times\int d^3y\;(V(y)\times\nabla)\frac{1}{\|x-y\|}\Big)_i<br /> =\epsilon_{ijk}\partial_j \int d^3y\; (V(y)\times\nabla)_k \frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = \epsilon_{ijk}\underbrace{\epsilon_{klm}}_{=\epsilon_{lmk}} \partial_j \int d^3y\; V_l(y)\partial_m \frac{1}{\|x-y\|}[/tex]

But then I encountered problems when trying to prove this. By substituting

[tex] \sum_{k=1}^3 \epsilon_{ijk}\epsilon_{lmk} = \delta_{il}\delta_{jm} - \delta_{im}\delta_{jl}[/tex]

we get

[tex] \sum_{j,m=1}^3(\delta_{il}\delta_{jm} - \delta_{im}\delta_{jl})\partial_j\partial_m \frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = \delta_{il}\nabla^2 \frac{1}{\|x-y\|}\; -\; \partial_l\partial_i \frac{1}{\|x-y\|},[/tex]

but now the second term with derivatives [tex]\partial_l\partial_i[/tex] is messing everything. The first term is already all we would want, because it is known result that

[tex] \nabla^2\frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = -4\pi\delta^3(x-y)[/tex]

again in the sense that there should be a test function, and derivatives outside the integral.
 
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Now I understood this :cool: After replacing the derivative with respect to x into an derivative with respect to y, and integration by parts, the second term gives

[tex] \int d^3y\; (\partial_l V_l(y)) \partial_m \frac{1}{\|x-y\|} = 0[/tex]

if [tex]\nabla\cdot V=0[/tex] is assumed.
 

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