Integral of |f(k)|^2: Proving Equality to 1

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion centers around proving that the integral from negative infinity to infinity of the square of the absolute value of a function, specifically |f(k)|^2, equals 1. The function in question is given as a Gaussian function, f(x) = N/√σ * e^(-x²/(2σ²)). Participants are exploring the implications of this integral in the context of Fourier transforms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are discussing the application of the Gaussian integral and questioning the relationship between f(x) and f(k). There are suggestions to consider L'Hôpital's rule and to clarify the distinction between the function and its Fourier transform. Some participants express confusion regarding the integral and seek clarification on the notation used.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering suggestions and raising questions about the integral and its components. There is a mix of confusion and attempts to clarify the mathematical relationships involved, particularly regarding the Fourier transform and the variables used.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the definitions and assumptions related to the functions involved, particularly the notation of f(k) versus F(k). There is an indication that the original poster is working under specific constraints that may not have been fully articulated.

Wishbone
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ok so here's the question, show explicitly that

the integral from -inf to inf of |f(k)|^2=1

where [tex]f(x) = \frac{N}{\sqrt{\sigma}}*e^{\frac{-x^2}{2\sigma^2}}[/tex]
When doing the integral for the forier transform, I was going to use the gaussian integral to simplify it, but I don't htink I can do that, any ideas?
 
Last edited:
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I have tried and looked up several methods to solving this awfully ugly integral, anyone have any ideas?
 
Only a suggesstion - but it looks like you're going to have a situation where:

limit as [tex]{k\rightarrow\pm \infty}[/tex] of [tex]\frac1{k}e^{-k^2}[/tex] with some constants thrown in...

my suspicion is that you'll have to use L'Hopital.
 
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It is a Gaussian integral...
 
Im not sure how it is, I can see that f(x) might be, but not f(K)
 
What's the difference between f(x) and f(k)?
 
a factor of e^-(pi)*i*k*x
 
anyone?...
 
Once again, what's the difference between f(x) and f(k)? f(k) is just f(x) with variable k instead of x!
 
  • #10
I don't see that, I don't understand how the Fourier transform just changes the x's to k's.
 
  • #11
Wishbone said:
ok so here's the question, show explicitly that

the integral from -inf to inf of |f(k)|^2=1

where [tex]f(x) = \frac{N}{\sqrt{\sigma}}*e^{\frac{-x^2}{2\sigma^2}}[/tex]
When doing the integral for the forier transform, I was going to use the gaussian integral to simplify it, but I don't htink I can do that, any ideas?

This is a bit confusing. Do you really mean f(k)?? (in which case it is the function you gave with x replaced by k) or do you mean F(k), the Fourier transform of f(x)? (I am assuming that you mean the latter otherwise the question has nothing to do with Fourier transforms and the question is trivial. I think this is what you meant and that the other posters missed).

well, you have to calculate F(k), the Fourier transform of your f(x) first. Do you know how to calculate a Fourier transform in the first place? If not, you should look up the definition and then ask more questions if thsi is not clear.
 
  • #12
I am given f(k). Nothing else is made clear to me. I do infact know how to do Fourier transforms, I do infact could solve the problem if it, or the help i was given hear made any sense.
 
  • #13
Wishbone said:
I have tried and looked up several methods to solving this awfully ugly integral, anyone have any ideas?

Can you latex what this integral is? I'm confused on where your confusion lies, so knowing what you are staring at would help us out.
 

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