Integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2. Participants explore various approaches to tackle this integral, which involves trigonometric functions and definite integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to find a suitable substitution but encounters difficulties with the undefined nature of tan(pi/2). Some participants suggest using identities for definite integrals and question the validity and applicability of these identities. Others explore expressing the integral in different forms to facilitate integration.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with different methods and identities, with some providing insights into the transformation of the integral. There is recognition of the complexity of the integral, and while some participants express confusion, others share novel approaches that may lead to a solution.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the challenges posed by the original integral's structure and the limitations of certain identities in specific cases. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts to clarify concepts and explore various mathematical techniques without reaching a definitive conclusion.

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Homework Statement


Find the integral from 0 to pi/2 of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)).


The Attempt at a Solution



You can easily make it into the integral of tan(x)dx/(1+tan(x)), but the substitution u=tanx can't work because tan(pi/2) is undefined. Any ideas for a good substitution?
 
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Use the identity for definite integrals:

[tex] \int_a^b f(x)dx = \int_a^b f((a + b) - x)dx[/tex]

and the trignometric identity:

[tex] \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) = \cos(x)[/tex][tex] \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) = \sin(x)[/tex]
 
Last edited:
Where did that identity come from? When does it apply? It doesn't hold for f(x) = x for example.

As for the original integral, it's a little tricky and you have to express it in a special form to arrive at the answer.

[tex]\frac{sin (x)}{sin (x) + cos (x)} = \frac{1}{2} \ \frac{sin (x) + cos (x) - (cos (x) - sin (x)}{sin (x) + cos (x)} = \frac{1}{2} \left(1 - \frac{cos(x) - sin(x)}{sin(x)+cos(x)} \right)[/tex]

The rightmost expression can be easily integrated.
 
Defennder said:
Where did that identity come from?

Are you kidding me?? The identity is very well valid:

http://img124.imageshack.us/img124/1265/integralabproof1zs8.jpg

Defennder said:
When does it apply?

It applies for any function f(x)

Defennder said:
It doesn't hold for f(x) = x for example.

really??

[tex]\int_a^b xdx = \frac{x^2}{2}|_a^b = \frac{b^2}{2} - \frac{a^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\int_a^b (a + b - x)dx = ax|_a^b + bx|_a^b - \frac{x^2}{2}\left|_a^b[/tex]

[tex]~ =~ a(b - a)~ +~ b(b - a)~ +~ \frac{b^2}{2}~ -~ \frac{a^2}{2}~ = ~ab~ -~ a^2~ + ~b^2~ - ab~ + ~\frac{a^2}{2}~ -~ \frac{b^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{b^2}{2} - \frac{a^2}{2}[/tex]

even mathematica agrees with me:

http://img140.imageshack.us/img140/5850/integralabproof2fb8.jpg
 
Last edited by a moderator:
My mistake, I was mentally exhausted when I chanced upon this earlier. But I don't see how this could help evaluate the integral. After applying the transformation, you're left with the same function as before, except this time the top trigo function is cos x.
 
Defennder said:
My mistake, I was mentally exhausted when I chanced upon this earlier.

That's all right.. happens with all of us :D

Defennder said:
But I don't see how this could help evaluate the integral. After applying the transformation, you're left with the same function as before, except this time the top trigo function is cos x.

The question given above is a VERY common illustration of the above mentioned identity. Let the required integral be 'I'. Then,

[tex] I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx[/tex]

(eqn. 1)

[tex] I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)}{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) + \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)}dx = \frac{\cos(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx[/tex]

(eqn. 2)

adding both of them together,

[tex] 2I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} dx = \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]

and hence,

[tex] I = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]
 
That was very slick Rohan!
 
That's something I never did think of. Quite novel indeed.
 
Much nicer than the identity

[tex]\sin x = \frac 1 2 \bigl((\cos x + \sin x) - (\cos x - \sin x)\bigr)[/tex]

from which

[tex]\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin x}{\cos x + \sin x}\,dx<br /> = \frac 1 2 \bigl(x - \ln(\cos x + \sin x)\bigr)\Bigl|_0^{\pi/2} = \frac {\pi} 4[/tex]
 
  • #10
D H said:
Much nicer than the identity

[tex]\sin x = \frac 1 2 \bigl((\cos x + \sin x) - (\cos x - \sin x)\bigr)[/tex][/tex]

which is what Defennder already suggested... and what makes this much nicer??
 
  • #11
Sorry, my post was too short. Your technique is much nice.
 

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