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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi,

[itex]\phi(x)[/itex] is an interpolating scaling function (also called fundamental function or Dubuc-Deslauriers function) as given on pages 155 to 158 in these lecture notes: http://pages.unibas.ch/comphys/comphys/TEACH/WS07/course.pdf [Broken]

Why does the follwoing yield:

[itex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(x) dx = 1?[/itex]

At least, I assume this yields, because otherwise I cannot show the equality of the first equation of the exercise on page 158 of the above lecture notes:

http://img577.imageshack.us/img577/304/capturevm.png [Broken]

[itex]\phi(x)[/itex] is an interpolating scaling function (also called fundamental function or Dubuc-Deslauriers function) as given on pages 155 to 158 in these lecture notes: http://pages.unibas.ch/comphys/comphys/TEACH/WS07/course.pdf [Broken]

Why does the follwoing yield:

[itex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(x) dx = 1?[/itex]

At least, I assume this yields, because otherwise I cannot show the equality of the first equation of the exercise on page 158 of the above lecture notes:

http://img577.imageshack.us/img577/304/capturevm.png [Broken]

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