Integrate sinx/x using fourier transform?

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The discussion explores the integration of sin(x)/x using Fourier transforms, with participants suggesting that the integral can be expressed as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x. The relationship between the sinc function and the rectangle waveform is highlighted, as well as the known integral of sin(t)/t. Participants note that while using the Fourier transform can provide insights, it requires prior knowledge of the integral. Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the mathematical connections between these functions and their transforms, concluding that the integral evaluates to π.
nabeel17
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I learned how to integrate it using the complex plane and semi circle contours but I was wondering if there is a way using Fourier transforms. I know that the Fourier transform of the rectangle wave form is the sinc function so I was thinking maybe i could do an inverse Fourier on sinc x and get back the rectangle function and integrate that? Or something along those lines.
 
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anyone?
 
Sure just write the integral as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x. Of course if you can take the transform you already know the integral.
 
lurflurf said:
Sure just write the integral as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x. Of course if you can take the transform you already know the integral.

Why 1/x? why does that help? I was thinking to change sinx/x by taking the Fourier transform of it which is just the box function and see if that would get me anywhere.
 
I will assume the following
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t\\
\mathrm{sinc}(t)=\lim_{x\rightarrow t} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\\
\mathcal{F} \{ \mathrm{f}(t) \}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \mathrm{f}(t)e^{\imath \, \omega \, t} \, \mathrm{d}t$$
What you suggest works fine
we know (as you say)
$$\mathcal{F}\left\{\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\mathrm{sgn}(1-t)+\mathrm{sgn}(1+t))\right\}=\mathrm{sinc}(\omega)\\
\text{then}\\
\left. \int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t=\sqrt{2 \pi} \mathcal{F} ^{-1} \{ \mathrm{sinc}(\omega) \} \right|_{t=0}$$$$=\frac{\pi}{2}((\mathrm{sgn}(1-0)+\mathrm{sgn}(1+0)))=\pi$$
This does not really help us though as to do that we already know the integral.
 
1/x seems simpler to me
$$\mathcal{F} \{ t^{-1} \}=\imath \, \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\mathrm{sgn}(t)\\
\text{so}\\
\left. \int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t=-\imath \, \sqrt{2 \pi} \mathcal{F} \{ t^{-1} \}\right|_{\omega=0}=\pi \, \mathrm{sgn}(0)=\pi$$
 
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