Integrating Exponential Function with Infinite Upper Boundary

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function f(x) = πxe^(-x²) with a lower boundary of 0 and an upper boundary of infinity. Participants are exploring the correct evaluation of this integral and the implications of their calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of substitution methods and question the correctness of their integration steps. There are inquiries about the separation of integrals and the role of constants like π in the final answer. Some participants express uncertainty about the limits of integration and the implications of their calculations.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing various approaches and questioning each other's reasoning. Some guidance has been offered regarding the integration process, but there is no clear consensus on the final answer or the correctness of the methods used.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of potential confusion regarding the limits of integration and the presence of π in the original integral, which may affect the final evaluation. Participants are also encouraged to clarify their work for better understanding.

dj023102
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if f(x) = pi*xe^(-x^2)
integrating this function if the lower boundary is 0 and the upper boundary is infinity is the answer pi*(2e-1). is this right?
 
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Can you think of an appropriate substitution that may help with this integral?
 
i think i worked out.
Is the answer (2e-1)*pi
 
Could you show your work? I'm pretty sure that isn't the correct answer, but it is difficult to tell if you don't show how you arrived at it.
 
sure i used substitution method.
let u = -x^2
then du/dx=-2x, dx=du/-2x
this gives the integral of xe^u/-2xdu
=pi/2 integrate e^u lower boundary 0 upper boundary infinity
then separating the two integral, one integral with lower boundary 0 and upper boundary 1 and the second integral with lower boundary 1 and the upper boundary infinty.
the first integral gives e^1-e^0 and the second integral we get e^1.
then adding them together we get
(pi/2) * (e-1+e) is that right?
 
dj023102 said:
sure i used substitution method.
let u = -x^2
then du/dx=-2x, dx=du/-2x
this gives the integral of xe^u/-2xdu
=pi/2 integrate e^u lower boundary 0 upper boundary infinity
then separating the two integral, one integral with lower boundary 0 and upper boundary 1 and the second integral with lower boundary 1 and the upper boundary infinty.
the first integral gives e^1-e^0 and the second integral we get e^1.
then adding them together we get
(pi/2) * (e-1+e) is that right?
It's hard to follow your work. Add some empty lines to make reading easier. Using Latex helps a whole lot.

It shouldn't be e^u, it's slightly off. And what do you mean by "separating the integral"? You mean integration by parts? It's not needed here.
 
dj023102 said:
sure i used substitution method.
let u = -x^2
then du/dx=-2x, dx=du/-2x
More simply, if u= -x2, then du= -2x dx or -(1/2)du= dx

[itex]xe^{-x^2}dx[/itex] becomes [itex]e^{-x^2}(xdx)= -(1/2)e^u du[/itex]

this gives the integral of xe^u/-2xdu
=pi/2 integrate e^u lower boundary 0 upper boundary infinity
then separating the two integral, one integral with lower boundary 0 and upper boundary 1 and the second integral with lower boundary 1 and the upper boundary infinty.
the first integral gives e^1-e^0 and the second integral we get e^1.
then adding them together we get
(pi/2) * (e-1+e) is that right?
When x= 0, u= 0 and when x="infinity", u is -"infinity" The integral becomes
[tex]\int_0^\infty xe^{-x^2} dx= -\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{-\infty} e^u du[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^0 e^u du[/itex] <br /> <br /> I can see no reason to "separate" at x= 1. In any case, since x=1 is an upper limit for one integral and a lower limit for the other, those terms will subtract, not add, and will cancel.<br /> <br /> And there certainly is no reason to have a "pi" in there![/tex]
 
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So the answer is -1/2?
 
No, I just looked back and realized you had a "pi" in the original integral that you then dropped.

Including that pi,
[itex]\frac{1}{2}\pi \int_{-\infty}^0 e^u du= \frac{\pi}{2}e^u\right|_{-infty}^0= \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex][/itex]
 

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