Integrating Half-Loop Radius R: Confused?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the integration of the magnetic field generated by a half-loop of radius R, centered at the origin, with infinite line segments extending in the +/- x directions. The user struggles with the cross product in the equation dF=I(dL x B) and arrives at an incorrect final result of zero instead of the expected result of \(\frac{2Ia}{R^2}(-\vec{j})\). The confusion arises from the integration limits and the application of trigonometric identities during the integration process.

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  • Understanding of vector calculus and cross products
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  • Knowledge of integration techniques involving trigonometric functions
  • Experience with physics concepts related to current loops and magnetic fields
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Thomassino
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I can't seem to integrate this correctly. I only need the half loop integration, as i have the correct integration for the infinite lines.

Homework Statement



We start with the top half of a half-loop of radius R, centered at the origin, with infinite line segments traveling in the +/- x directions.

[tex]B=\frac{a}{r^3} (-\vec{k} )[/tex]
and
[tex]r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}[/tex]

Homework Equations



dF=I (dL x B)

The Attempt at a Solution



My attempt at a solution ends up with me getting confused over how to determine the resultant vector by cross product.

I(dLxB)
[tex] =I Rd\theta (-cos\theta(-\vec{\i})-sin\theta(-\vec{\j})) \times \frac {a}{r^3} (-\vec{k} )[/tex]
now, [tex]d\theta = \pi[/tex], and
I integrate [tex]\int_{-\pi /2}^{\pi/2}(-cos\theta(-\vec{i})-sin\theta(-\vec{j})[/tex]

which results in

[tex]\int_{-\pi /2}^{\pi/2}(-cos\theta(-\vec{i})-\int_{-\pi /2}^{\pi/2}(sin\theta(-\vec{j})[/tex]

[tex]\left[(-sin\theta(-\vec{i}) \right]_{-\pi /2}^{\pi/2}+\left[(cos\theta(-\vec{j})\right]_{-\pi /2}^{\pi/2}[/tex]
yielding 2+0=2

I then integrate [tex]2\pi IRa \int_{-R}^{R} \frac{dx}{x^3}[/tex]

but my final result ends up being

[tex]=2IR\pi a [\frac{-1}{2R^2}-\frac{-1}{2R^2}][/tex] which is zero and I need it to be one.

Also, I believe the correct answer is
[tex]\frac{2Ia}{R^2}(-\vec{j})[/tex] which does not have the RΠ factor which I end up with...
Can someone please help me comprehend this better, as it has been many years since I have had calculus and haven't been able to find any examples of this type of integration.

Thank you very much!
 
Last edited:
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here are some pics

here are the pictures of my problem and, seemingly, my result.
 

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