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I was wondering if someone might be able to help me out with some intermediate steps please. I can't see how

$$f_{tt} =-\int_{r_0}^0 \left(\frac{2Gm_0}{r} - \frac{2Gm_0}{r_0}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}} dr$$

becomes

$$f_{tt} =- \left(\frac{2Gm_0}{r_0}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\int_{r_0}^0\left(\frac{r_0}{r}-1\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}dr$$

I've been wracking my brain over this and can't see how it's been done. I originally thought that the fraction containing all the constants was pulled out somehow but this can't be possible since

$$(A+B)^n \neq A^n + B^n$$

I would be very grateful if someone could point me in the right direction.

Regards

Brian

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# Integration algabriac manipulation problem

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