Integration by substitution question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a calculus problem from Apostol's "Calculus" Volume 1, specifically regarding the evaluation of the integral \(\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^m x \sin^m x \, dx\) for positive integers \(m\). Participants are exploring the implications of the problem's requirements and the methods of integration involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to analyze the problem by considering two cases based on whether \(m\) is odd or even. They describe their substitution approach and express confusion about moving away from the expected result. Other participants suggest using double-angle formulas and reduction formulas, while one mentions Walli's Formula as an alternative approach.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various insights and suggestions for tackling the integral. There is no explicit consensus on a single method, but multiple approaches are being explored, indicating a productive exchange of ideas.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the need to show that the left-hand side equals the right-hand side after evaluating the definite integral, emphasizing the importance of the areas represented by the integrals rather than the integrands themselves.

emjay66
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Homework Statement


I've been working on a problem from Apostol "Calculus" Volume 1 (not homework but self study). The problem is Section 5.8, Number 25 (Page 217) and states:
If [tex]$\m$[\tex] is a positive integer, show that:<br /> <br /> [itex]\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x sin^m x dx = 2^{-m}\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x dx[/itex]<br /> <br /> <h2>Homework Equations</h2><br /> <br /> <br /> <h2>The Attempt at a Solution</h2><br /> My thinking (so far) has been that I have two consider two cases, <br /> <ol> <li data-xf-list-type="ol">m odd</li> <li data-xf-list-type="ol">m even</li> </ol>When I have tackled $$\m$$ odd, the following occurred (and this is what confused me):<br /> I use the substitution $$u = cos x, du = -sin x dx $<br /> [itex]\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x sin^m x dx =<br /> - \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x sin^{m-1} x (-sin x) dx<br /> = -\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}cos^m x (sin^2 x)^{\frac{m-1}{2}}(-sin x) dx<br /> = -\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}cos^m x (1 - cos^2 x)^{\frac{m-1}{2}}(-sin x) dx<br /> = -\int_1^0 u^m(1 - u^2)^{\frac{m-1}{2}} du<br /> = \int_0^1 u^m(1 - u^2)^{\frac{m-1}{2}} du[/itex]<br /> Since this is clearly a binomial expansion within the integral, it seems to me that I am moving away from the answer rather than towards the answer. I know that if $$m$$ odd, I would need to use the half angle formulas for $$sin x$$ and $$ cos x$$. In my opinion, I am clearly missing the point, so if anyone can point me in the right direction, that would be appreciated.[/tex]
 
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Hmmm ... tidying that up first:
emjay66 said:

Homework Statement


I've been working on a problem from Apostol "Calculus" Volume 1 (not homework but self study). The problem is Section 5.8, Number 25 (Page 217) and states:
If [itex]m[/itex] is a positive integer, show that:

[tex]\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x sin^m x dx = 2^{-m}\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^m x dx[/tex]

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution


My thinking (so far) has been that I have two consider two cases,
  1. m odd
  2. m even
When I have tackled ##m## odd, the following occurred (and this is what confused me):
I use the substitution $$u = \cos x, du = -\sin x dx $$

$$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^m x \sin^m x dx \\
= - \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^m x \sin^{m-1} x (-\sin x) dx\\
= -\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos^m x (\sin^2 x)^{\frac{m-1}{2}}(-\sin x) dx\\
= -\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos^m x (1 - \cos^2 x)^{\frac{m-1}{2}}(-\sin x) dx\\
= -\int_1^0 u^m(1 - u^2)^{\frac{m-1}{2}} du\\
= \int_0^1 u^m(1 - u^2)^{\frac{m-1}{2}} du
$$


Since this is clearly a binomial expansion within the integral, it seems to me that I am moving away from the answer rather than towards the answer. I know that if ##m## odd, I would need to use the half angle formulas for ##\sin x## and ##\cos x##. In my opinion, I'm clearly missing the point, so if anyone can point me in the right direction, that would be appreciated.
 
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I would have used the double-angle formulas myself - specifically: $$\sin 2x = 2\sin x\cos x$$
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_o...le.2C_triple-angle.2C_and_half-angle_formulae

There's a reduction formula for ##\int \sin^n x\; dx## and ##\int \cos^n x\; dx##

You could also use the power reduction formulae on the integrands.
This divides into m odd vs m even.

Of course there is also: Note: $$\int \sin^nx\cos^nx\;\dx = -\frac{\sin^{n-1}x\cos^{n+1}x}{2n}+\frac{n-1}{2n}\int \sin^{n-2}x\cos^nx\;dx\; :\; n>0$$
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_integrals_of_trigonometric_functions

You only need to show that the LHS = RHS after the definitite integral BTW: i.e. the areas must be the same, not the integrands.
 
Last edited:
I would suggest using Walli's Formula rather than doing the integration manually.
 

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