Is 1 Included in the Mathematical Set S?

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In one of my old notes, I was reviewing this proof. It started with:

Consider S = \{ x \in \mathbb{R} \ | \ x^2 = 2, \ x > 0\}, then S is not empty because 1 \in S

Why is 1 in the set?

Thanks.
 
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Bachelier said:
In one of my old notes, I was reviewing this proof. It started with:

Consider S = \{ x \in \mathbb{R} \ | \ x^2 = 2, \ x > 0\}, then S is not empty because 1 \in S

Why is 1 in the set?

Thanks.

This isn't true. The square of 1 is not 2
 
x^2 = 2 doesn't seem like a particular interesting thing to look at. I can't help but notice that there are two "2's" in your expression. Perhaps you were looking at a specific case of the set x^n = n. The number 1 would be in this set for the case that n=1.
 
Bachelier said:
In one of my old notes, I was reviewing this proof. It started with:

Consider S = \{ x \in \mathbb{R} \ | \ x^2 = 2, \ x > 0\}, then S is not empty because 1 \in S

Why is 1 in the set?

Thanks.

It's probably a typo and it should be

S=\{x\in \mathbb{R}~\vert~x^2\leq 2,~x>0\}

I bet they end up taking the supremum of S.
 
micromass said:
It's probably a typo and it should be

S=\{x\in \mathbb{R}~\vert~x^2\leq 2,~x>0\}

I bet they end up taking the supremum of S.

Indeed. Please see the attached file for the complete proof.
 

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A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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