Is [a]^-1 = [0] if and only if p|a?

  • Thread starter Thread starter zoner7
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Law Proof
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around properties of congruence classes in the context of the field Zp, specifically examining the conditions under which the inverse of a congruence class exists and the implications of the prime p dividing a given element a.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the existence of the inverse of [a] and the divisibility of a by the prime p. Questions arise regarding the implications of a being non-zero and the reasoning behind p not dividing a.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide insights into the reasoning expected in the original question, while others express uncertainty about specific assumptions and definitions. There is an acknowledgment that the original poster's approach was not incorrect, but lacked justification for the existence of the inverse.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding the properties of prime numbers and congruence classes, as well as the specific conditions under which the inverse of an element in Zp can be defined.

zoner7
Messages
89
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


in Zp, where a does not equal 0, that [a][x] = [a][y] is the same as [x] = [y].

This was a question on a test I just finished. Just curious how wrong my answer is. So I sort of ignored the congruence class part. I just said:

* [a]^-1 represents the inverse of [a] *

[a][x] = [a][y]
[a]^-1[a][x] = [a][y][a]^-1 (by associative law)
[1][x] = [1][y] (by the law of inverses)
[x] = [y] (since 1 is the identity element under multiplication in congruence classes).

so yea... did i do anything right?

thanks for the help in advance
 
Physics news on Phys.org
At the very least mention why you think [a]-1 should exist. (it's non-zero). In fact, this is technically correct but I suspect more detail was expected (since if you know Zp is a field, this is a useless question). Here's how you probably were supposed to do it (I left two details to fill in)

[a][x] = [a][y] if and only if p|(ax-ay) if and only if p|a(x-y)

p|a(x-y) implies p|a or p|(x-y) (why?)

p does not divide a (why?)

Hence p|(x-y) and this gives [x]=[y]

and you can run the same thing backwards

EDIT TO ADD: I forgot to mention I'm assuming p is prime here, as otherwise the question's wrong
 
p|a(x-y) implies p|a or p|(x-y) (why?)
This is true, because since p is prime, we are able to apply Euclid's lemma.

p does not divide a (why?)
I honestly couldn't tell you why p does not divide a.

so... did I do anything correct at all...?
 
zoner7 said:
p does not divide a (why?)
I honestly couldn't tell you why p does not divide a.

Go back and read the question carefully... what do you know about a?


so... did I do anything correct at all...?

Nothing you did was wrong per se, it's just that you didn't support why there should exist a congruence class of the form [a]-1, which was probably what was expected of you (alternatively, and easier is the argument I posted).
 
Office_Shredder said:
Go back and read the question carefully... what do you know about a?
/QUOTE]

ahh, got you.

A does not equal 0. but why does that mean that p cannot divide a. any prime p divides into 0.
 
By definition

[a] = [0] if and only if p|a
 

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
24
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K