Is BJT Impedance Proportional to Ic?

[likephysics]

In the equivalent diagram of BJT, Vbe and rbe represent the base voltage and resistance.
gmVbe is a current source, which represents the current gain.

Since gm = Ic/Vt

Vt/Ic = 1/gm
Does this mean the impedance of the current source is 1/gm ?
I know this sounds a bit weird. It's because of a homework problem posted here -
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=569541
(the input resistance of the diode connected BJT is (rbe||1/gm).

 

[Kholdstare]

In the equivalent diagram of BJT, Vbe and rbe represent the base voltage and resistance.
gmVbe is a current source, which represents the current gain.

Since gm = Ic/Vt

Vt/Ic = 1/gm
Does this mean the impedance of the current source is 1/gm ?
I know this sounds a bit weird. It's because of a homework problem posted here -
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=569541
(the input resistance of the diode connected BJT is (rbe||1/gm).

You're confusing up things. gm means trans-conductance. it is derived as gm = dIc/dVbe = Ic/Vt. This Vt is thermal equivalent of voltage and is constant for a particular temperature.
It only means gm is proportional to Ic. And it does mean the current source has 1/gm impedance.