I Is calling fictitious forces not real just about terminology?

renobueno4153
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- Did I understand this concept right?
- If I hear a force is fictitious I think there is like an illusion making me think there is smth happening for the wrong reasons but fictitious forces like the corioles force have actually consequences in the real world. So my question is "real force vs. fictitious forces" just about differentiating two ideas or can the "illusion" of fictitious forces explained by the influence of real forces?
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel.

Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces.

I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real.

I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can observe accelerations/forces which you wouldn't in inertial reference frames. And to satisfy newtons first law of motion (F=ma) you need to mathematically adjust that to keep that statement true. So in order to describe the accelerations and forces appearing in non-inertial reference frames you introduce the concept of fictitious forces.

So my question is:
- Did I understand this concept right? (Feel free to call everything wrong out! I dont care about brutal honesty I really want to know!)
- If I hear a force is fictitious I think there is like an illusion making me think there is smth happening for the wrong reasons but fictitious forces like the corioles force have actually consequences in the real world. So my question is "real force vs. fictitious forces" just about differentiating two ideas or can the "illusion" of fictitious forces explained by the influence of real forces?
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...

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