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Is it possible for an atom to have a pure electrical charge?

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  1. Mar 29, 2016 #1
    Please don't hate if this is a stupid question, I am a freshmen in high school so I don't know this stuff.

    What I am really talking about is how all atoms have some impurity in them which is why friction happens, but is there a way to create one with no impurity?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 29, 2016 #2

    DrClaude

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    Hi ARC123, welcome to PF!

    An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.

    Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.

    If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.
     
  4. Mar 30, 2016 #3


    An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.


    Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.


    If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.[/QUOTE]
    Sorry for the confusion. I recently found a forum taking about a object being friction less. In the forum they say that what really causes friction is a electromagnetic interaction between the atoms of both objects. They also said for it to be frictionless the atom would have to have the same electrical charge. He says it theoretical but not in reality. My question was theoretically how would you make a atom's charge completely positive.
    Forum link: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/frictionless-surface.218782/
    Look at suolintu comment for reference
     
  5. Mar 30, 2016 #4

    DrClaude

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    That answer from suolintu is nonsense.
     
  6. Mar 30, 2016 #5
    Oh okay thanks
     
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