Jun 17, 2013 #1 St41n Messages 32 Reaction score 0 Can I do this: sup_(x,y) f(x,y) = sup_y sup_x f(x,y) ?
Jun 17, 2013 #2 WannabeNewton Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 5,848 Reaction score 552 Yes. Proof: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/53794/simple-question-the-double-supremum