Is Lorentz Invariance Consistent in a 3-Torus Spacetime?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of Lorentz invariance within the context of a 3-torus spacetime. Participants are examining the implications of proper time calculations for observers traveling around a finite universe and how these relate to the spacetime interval.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are exploring the implications of proper time for two observers, A and B, who meet at the same spatial point after traveling around the universe. Questions arise regarding the consistency of their proper times and the interpretation of Lorentz invariance.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning each other's assumptions and calculations. Some have offered clarifications regarding the reference frames and the nature of proper time, while others are seeking to understand the discrepancies in their reasoning.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the definitions of coordinate time and proper time, as well as the implications of traveling in a 3-torus spacetime. Participants are also grappling with the limitations of the spacetime interval formula in this context.

rbwang1225
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Homework Statement


p1.2.jpeg

Homework Equations


spacetime interval ##Δs^2=-Δt^2+Δx^2+Δy^2+Δz^2##

The Attempt at a Solution


p1.2-2.jpg

We know that the straight path in spacetime diagram is the one with maximum proper time, however we get the same value after going around the universe and this is not consistent of my understanding of Lorentz invariance.

I just want to know if my understanding is right or not.
Any comment would be appreciated,
Regards.
 
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I don't understand your solution. From A's perspective, the clock of B runs slower so surely B ages more slowly than A.
 
Hello clamtrox,

Sorry for unclear solution.
What I thought is that, after a revolution from the universe, B travels back to ##x=0## point at the same time as A since ##x\sim x+L##.
Hence the proper time measured by B is the same as A, which contradicts my understanding of Lorentz invariance.

Regards.
 
rbwang1225 said:
What I thought is that, after a revolution from the universe, B travels back to ##x=0## point at the same time as A since ##x\sim x+L##.

Which reference frame are you using to compute the proper times? Can you show the calculation, as there's something wrong with it.
 
For the observer A, ##\Delta s_A^2 = -\Delta t^2 ##.
For the observer B, ##\Delta s_B^2 = -\Delta t^2 ##, since ##x=0\sim x=L##.
 
You can identify the point in space, but not in time. You cannot just assume that the proper times are the same because they meet in the same point in space again.
 
What confused me is that is the coordinate time of B after traveling around the universe not the same as that of A?
 
Coordinate time in which reference frame? For any observer, "meeting" means they have the same coordinate time. But this does not mean that they have to have the same proper time.
 
My calculations depend on the formula ##\Delta \tau^2 =- \Delta s^2 =\Delta t^2 -\Delta x^2##.
If the coordinate times are the same, I don't know where's the fault.
 
  • #10
This formula works in a regular space only.
 
  • #11
Just because you identify the points x and x+L, that doesn't mean the distance you've traveled when you go around the universe is zero. In one case, you have [itex]\Delta \tau^2 = \Delta t^2[/itex], in the other [itex]\Delta \tau^2 = \Delta t^2 - L^2[/itex].
 

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