Is Proper Time=0 Equivalent to Saying Proper Time Doesn't Apply?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of proper time in relation to photons, specifically whether a proper time of zero for a photon implies that proper time does not apply to it. Participants clarify that proper time is defined by the spacetime interval, which is zero for light-like paths. Some argue that proper time should only be applied to intervals greater than zero, while others assert that it can apply to zero-length intervals. Ultimately, the consensus is that while proper time is zero for photons, this does not negate the concept's applicability; rather, it highlights the unique nature of light in the framework of Special Relativity.

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  • #31
From what I know, the laws of physics being the same in all referential frames is usually interpreted with specific examples where if in one frame a rope breaks that means that it must break in all other reference frames, so I'm trying to understand how does a non-existing referential frame agree with the fact that in our reference frame the photon has certain laws.
 
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  • #32
Nick666 said:
From what I know, the laws of physics being the same in all referential frames is usually interpreted with specific examples where if in one frame a rope breaks that means that it must break in all other reference frames, so I'm trying to understand how does a non-existing referential frame agree with the fact that in our reference frame the photon has certain laws.
The claim that "the laws of physics are the same in all inertial reference frames" entails no prediction whatsoever about what the laws of physics are like in non-existent reference frames.
 
  • #33
jbriggs444 said:
entails no prediction whatsoever about what the laws of physics are like in non-existent reference frames.
So then how come we from our frame of reference know or are so convinced that our laws of the photon are true ? (I sense maybe its a stupid question but I had to do it)
 
  • #34
The principle of relativity itself implies an invariant speed. If that speed is infinite you get Newtonian physics. If it is finite you get relativistic physics.

See http://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0302045.
 
  • #35
Nick666 said:
So then how come we from our frame of reference know or are so convinced that our laws of the photon are true ? (I sense maybe its a stupid question but I had to do it)

Our laws are our laws. They apply to all objects, including photons. How a hypothetical photon would make up a hypothetical law of physics to hypothetically describe how things look from its hypothetical point of view is irrelevant. The photon is not telling us what it sees.
 
  • #36
Nick666 said:
Just so I don't open another thread.

If the photon doesn't have a referential frame, and relativity says the laws of physics are the same in all referential frames, can't one say that the laws of physics are ...not...the same for the photon ?
No, because when someone says "the laws of physics are the same in all reference frames", they are being a bit sloppy with the English language. It would be more accurate (but sounds clumsier, which is why we don't often say it this way) to say "The law of physics produce the same results no matter what reference frame you use to assign times and positions to events". Phrased this way, it is clear that the aws of physics apply to everything, whether we can find a reference frame in which it is at rest or not.
 
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