Is R\P a Multiplicative Set in an Integral Domain with a Prime Ideal?

  • Thread starter Thread starter tom.young84
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Ring Theory
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around whether the set R\P, where R is an integral domain and P is a prime ideal, is a multiplicative set. Participants are exploring the properties of prime ideals and the implications of removing elements associated with them.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to show that the product of any two elements in R\P remains in R\P, questioning how to demonstrate closure under multiplication. Some express uncertainty about the implications of removing prime ideals versus specific elements.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and properties related to prime ideals and multiplicative sets. Some participants provide insights into contradictions arising from assumptions, while others seek clarification on the logical connections between the definitions and the conclusions drawn.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating assumptions about the nature of prime ideals and the structure of local rings, with some questioning the definitions being used in the discussion.

tom.young84
Messages
21
Reaction score
0
1)

R is an integral domain and P is a prime ideal.

Show R\P (R complement P or R-P) is a multiplicative set.

-Well since R is an integral domain it contains 1.
-{0} would be a prime ideal, and that was removed (is this too much to assume)

I'm not sure how to show multiplication is closed. My idea is that since we removed all prime ideals, so we have a, b in R and ab in R, we are only left with subsets where multiplication is closed.

2)

Local rings have only one maximal ideal

Could this be prove as such:

Suppose an ideal J that contains all non units. Now suppose another maximal ideal I in J and "a" (a non-unit) in J. This means that I must either be the ring R or J again. Since J is maximal, I=J and a is in J.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
tom.young84 said:
My idea is that since we removed all prime ideals
No, you removed the elements of P.
 
Outside of the case with {0}, I'm not sure why this is a multiplicative set.
 
(1) follows immediately from the definition of prime ideal.
 
tom.young84 said:
1)

R is an integral domain and P is a prime ideal.

Show R\P (R complement P or R-P) is a multiplicative set.

-Well since R is an integral domain it contains 1.
-{0} would be a prime ideal, and that was removed (is this too much to assume)

I'm not sure how to show multiplication is closed. My idea is that since we removed all prime ideals, so we have a, b in R and ab in R, we are only left with subsets where multiplication is closed.
As Hurkyl remarked you seem to have misunderstood the question. We haven't removed all prime ideals, just a single fixed one. You need to show that if a and b are elements of R\P, then ab is an element of R\P. That is assume a,b are elements of R that aren't in P. Now you need to show that ab can't possibly be in P. The easiest way is by contradiction. Suppose ab is in P. Then you have,
- a,b are not in P
- ab is in P
Can you see how this contradicts that P is a prime ideal?

2)

Local rings have only one maximal ideal

Could this be prove as such:

Suppose an ideal J that contains all non units. Now suppose another maximal ideal I in J and "a" (a non-unit) in J. This means that I must either be the ring R or J again. Since J is maximal, I=J and a is in J.
What is your definition of a local ring? It seems to be that all non-units in the ring form an ideal. If this is the case then this argument is correct.
 
For the first question, I understand your proof, but I don't understand why that answers the question. Your contradiction is that it violates the definition of a prime ideal. I don't understand why this demonstrates that A\P is closed under multiplication.
 
tom.young84 said:
For the first question, I understand your proof, but I don't understand why that answers the question. Your contradiction is that it violates the definition of a prime ideal. I don't understand why this demonstrates that A\P is closed under multiplication.

We prove that if [itex]a,b \in R\setminus P[/itex] and [itex]ab \in P[/itex] we get a contradiction, so if [itex]a,b \in R\setminus P[/itex] we must have [itex]ab \in R \setminus P[/itex] which is exactly what it means for [itex]R \setminus P[/itex] to be closed under multiplication.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
9K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K