As an AP student, I agree that the typical AP calculus course doesn't bother with too much rigor. It seems more geared toward engineering, which I don't think bothers as much with proofs (correct me if I'm wrong, of course).
Since I don't have much experience in these types of proofs, I hope you guys don't mind me taking a stab at it. I have no idea what the best proof for each of these is, but hopefully I won't have any reasoning errors. Any pointers would be welcome :)
EDIT: I just noticed uman also posted, and his proof for #1 is similar to mine, so that's good. Formatting is a [censored].
mathwonk said:
if f is a differentiable function with f'(a) > 0, PROVE that on some interval a < x < a+e we have f(x) > f(a).
Let's say [itex]f\,'(a) = L > 0[/itex]. Then, from the definition of the derivative,
[tex]f\,'(a) = \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x - a}[/tex]
So for all [itex]\epsilon > 0[/itex], there is a [itex]\delta > 0[/itex] such that if [itex]|x-a|<\delta[/itex], then
[tex]-\epsilon < \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}\,-\,L < \epsilon[/tex]
thus
[tex](L-\epsilon)(x-a) < f(x)-f(a) < (L+\epsilon)(x-a)[/tex]
The inequality doesn't switch because [itex]x-a[/itex] is positive. If we choose [itex]\epsilon < L[/itex], then
[tex]0 < (L-\epsilon)(x-a) < f(x)-f(a)[/tex]
is true whenever [itex]x-a<\delta[/itex] (which exists by definition). So our interval is [itex](a,\,a+\delta)[/itex], which prevents us from choosing an interval [itex](a,\,b)[/itex] such that the slope of the secant line between
a and
b is negative or zero.
mathwonk said:
Using basic theorems from calc, PROVE that if f'(a) > 0 and f'(b) < 0, and f is differentiable on [a,b], (but do NOT assume the derivative is continuous), then f'(c) = 0 for some c: a< c < b.
I'm not sure if this is the best way to do this, but we know by the first question that there exists x in (a, b) such that f(x) > f(a). By a similar proof, there is y in (a, b) such that f(y) > f(b). Thus, f(a) and f(b) are not absolute maximums, and with the extreme value theorem, we know f(x) must have an absolute maximum, f(M), for M in (a, b). To prove f'(M) = 0, we do the same thing that is used to prove Rolle's theorem: show that left and right hand limits for the derivative are always positive and negative, respectively. If they approach the same limit L, then they must be 0.