Is the Factorization of Product Expectation Values Valid in Steady State?

[Niles]

Homework Statement

Hi

I have read a paper, where they want to find the average number of photons in a cavity. They have an expression for \langle{\hat a}\rangle, and then they use
<br /> \langle{\hat a}\rangle^* = \langle{\hat a^\dagger}\rangle<br />
to find \langle{\hat a^\dagger \hat a}\rangle. I agree with the above relation, however what I don't agree with is the following equality
<br /> \langle{\hat a^\dagger \hat a}\rangle = \langle{\hat a}\rangle^*\langle{\hat a}\rangle<br />
Am I right? I mean, one can't just factorize an expectation value like that.Niles.

 

[Fightfish]

You are right in that the equality doesn't hold in general. It is a commonly made approximation in order to "close" the set of correlation functions.

 

[Niles]

Thanks! I read it here, on page 12/13, where they do as I wrote in my OP: http://mediatum2.ub.tum.de/doc/652711/652711.pdf

I can't see however why the approximation is valid in this case.

 

[Fightfish]

If I'm not mistaken the equality holds because the authors are considering the steady state case.

 

[Niles]

It is not obvious to me why it should be valid in steady state.