Is the Limit of an Integrable Function Equal to Its Pointwise Limit?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof that if a function \( f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R} \) is integrable on closed subintervals and has a limit \( \lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = l \), then \( \lim_{x \to +\infty} \frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{x} f = l \). The proof involves establishing bounds on the integral and using the properties of limits and integrability. Specifically, it shows that for sufficiently large \( x \), the average value of \( f \) over the interval converges to \( l \).

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evinda
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Hey again! :rolleyes: (Blush)

I am looking at the following exercise:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R} $ integrable on each closed subinterval of $[0,+\infty)$.We suppose that $\lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x)=l$.Show that $\lim_{x \to +\infty} \frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{x} f = l$.

The solution is the following:
Let $\epsilon>0$.As $\lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x)=l$, $\exists c_1>0$ such that $|f(x)-l|<\epsilon, \forall x \geq c_1$.
Also,$\exists c_2>0$ such that $\frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|< \epsilon, \forall x \geq c_2$
Therefore, $ \forall x \geq \max\{c_1,c_2\}$ we have $|\frac{1}{x} \int_0^x f - l|=\frac{1}{x} |\int_0^x (f-l)|\leq \frac{1}{x} \int_0^{c_1} |f-l|+\frac{1}{x} \int_{c_1}^x |f-l| \leq \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon$

Could you explain me the red part?? How do we conclude to that?? :confused:
 
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Re: Why is it like that?

evinda said:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R} $ integrable on each closed subinterval of $[0,+\infty)$...

Also,$\exists c_2>0$ such that $\frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|< \epsilon, \forall x \geq c_2$ ...

Could you explain me the red part??
This is because once we have chosen $c_1$, $\int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|$ is a fixed number, which exists because $f$, and therefore $|f-l|$, is integrable. Meanwhile, $x$ increases unboundedly.
 
Re: Why is it like that?

Evgeny.Makarov said:
This is because once we have chosen $c_1$, $\int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|$ is a fixed number, which exists because $f$, and therefore $|f-l|$, is integrable. Meanwhile, $x$ increases unboundedly.

A ok!Thanks a lot! :)
 
evinda said:
Therefore, $ \forall x \geq \max\{c_1,c_2\}$ we have $|\frac{1}{x} \int_0^x f - l|=\frac{1}{x} |\int_0^x (f-l)|\leq \frac{1}{x} \int_0^{c_1} |f-l|+\frac{1}{x} \int_{c_1}^x |f-l| \leq \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon$

Could you also explain me why it stands that :

$$ \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon $$

? (Thinking) (Thinking)
 
evinda said:
Could you also explain me why it stands that :

$$ \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon $$

?
Well, obviously $\epsilon$ plus a positive number cannot be $\le\epsilon$, but it is $\le2\epsilon$.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Well, obviously $\epsilon$ plus a positive number cannot be $\le\epsilon$, but it is $\le2\epsilon$.

Nice! Thank you very much! (Smile)
 

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