Is the Limit of an Integrable Function Equal to Its Pointwise Limit?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a mathematical exercise concerning the limit of an integrable function and its relationship to the limit of its average over an interval. Participants are exploring the conditions under which the limit of the average of the function converges to the pointwise limit of the function as the variable approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an exercise involving an integrable function and its limit, seeking clarification on a specific part of the solution related to the convergence of the average of the function.
  • Another participant explains that once a certain threshold \(c_1\) is chosen, the integral \(\int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|\) is a fixed number due to the integrability of \(f\), which leads to a conclusion about the behavior of the average as \(x\) increases.
  • A later reply questions the inequality \(\epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon\), noting that it seems incorrect since the left side appears to exceed \(\epsilon\) and suggests it could be less than or equal to \(2\epsilon\).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the validity of certain inequalities and the implications of the integrability of the function. There is no consensus on the correctness of the inequality discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the implications of integrability and limits, with some steps and assumptions remaining unresolved, particularly regarding the treatment of inequalities in the context of limits.

evinda
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Hey again! :rolleyes: (Blush)

I am looking at the following exercise:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R} $ integrable on each closed subinterval of $[0,+\infty)$.We suppose that $\lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x)=l$.Show that $\lim_{x \to +\infty} \frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{x} f = l$.

The solution is the following:
Let $\epsilon>0$.As $\lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x)=l$, $\exists c_1>0$ such that $|f(x)-l|<\epsilon, \forall x \geq c_1$.
Also,$\exists c_2>0$ such that $\frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|< \epsilon, \forall x \geq c_2$
Therefore, $ \forall x \geq \max\{c_1,c_2\}$ we have $|\frac{1}{x} \int_0^x f - l|=\frac{1}{x} |\int_0^x (f-l)|\leq \frac{1}{x} \int_0^{c_1} |f-l|+\frac{1}{x} \int_{c_1}^x |f-l| \leq \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon$

Could you explain me the red part?? How do we conclude to that?? :confused:
 
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Re: Why is it like that?

evinda said:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R} $ integrable on each closed subinterval of $[0,+\infty)$...

Also,$\exists c_2>0$ such that $\frac{1}{x} \int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|< \epsilon, \forall x \geq c_2$ ...

Could you explain me the red part??
This is because once we have chosen $c_1$, $\int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|$ is a fixed number, which exists because $f$, and therefore $|f-l|$, is integrable. Meanwhile, $x$ increases unboundedly.
 
Re: Why is it like that?

Evgeny.Makarov said:
This is because once we have chosen $c_1$, $\int_{0}^{c_1} |f-l|$ is a fixed number, which exists because $f$, and therefore $|f-l|$, is integrable. Meanwhile, $x$ increases unboundedly.

A ok!Thanks a lot! :)
 
evinda said:
Therefore, $ \forall x \geq \max\{c_1,c_2\}$ we have $|\frac{1}{x} \int_0^x f - l|=\frac{1}{x} |\int_0^x (f-l)|\leq \frac{1}{x} \int_0^{c_1} |f-l|+\frac{1}{x} \int_{c_1}^x |f-l| \leq \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon$

Could you also explain me why it stands that :

$$ \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon $$

? (Thinking) (Thinking)
 
evinda said:
Could you also explain me why it stands that :

$$ \epsilon + \frac{x-c_1}{x} \epsilon \leq \epsilon $$

?
Well, obviously $\epsilon$ plus a positive number cannot be $\le\epsilon$, but it is $\le2\epsilon$.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Well, obviously $\epsilon$ plus a positive number cannot be $\le\epsilon$, but it is $\le2\epsilon$.

Nice! Thank you very much! (Smile)
 

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