- #1
eljose
- 484
- 0
Let be the integral equation:
\int_{a}^{b}dyK(x,y)f(y)=g(x)where f is unknown and g is known, then i use a resolvent Kernel in the form:
\int_{a}^{b}dyR(x,y)g(y)=f(x) where we obtain the Kernel R by:
R=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}b_{n}(K-I)^{n} the last is Neumann series for the Kernel operator R..is my approach always true?..thanks.
\int_{a}^{b}dyK(x,y)f(y)=g(x)where f is unknown and g is known, then i use a resolvent Kernel in the form:
\int_{a}^{b}dyR(x,y)g(y)=f(x) where we obtain the Kernel R by:
R=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}b_{n}(K-I)^{n} the last is Neumann series for the Kernel operator R..is my approach always true?..thanks.
