Is there a mistake in this explanation of spherical coordinates?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the explanation of spherical coordinates as presented in Ramamurti's "Basic Training in Mathematics." The key point of contention is the absence of a negative sign in the equation relating sinθdθ to dz. The correct derivation shows that dz equals -sinθ dθ when substituting z = cosθ. Participants confirm that the author should indeed include the negative sign in the integral representation.

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leinadle
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The explanation for this is probably very trivial, but I am not seeing it. I'm reading through Ramamurti's "Basic Training in Mathematics" and in the Multivariable Calculus section for spherical coordinates he says

Using the fact that sinθdθ = dcosθ = dz

and then shows an integral. Shouldn't there be a negative sign before the cosθ? And how is this equal to dz?

Thanks in advance
 
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leinadle said:
The explanation for this is probably very trivial, but I am not seeing it. I'm reading through Ramamurti's "Basic Training in Mathematics" and in the Multivariable Calculus section for spherical coordinates he says



and then shows an integral. Shouldn't there be a negative sign before the cosθ? And how is this equal to dz?

Thanks in advance
Yes, there should be a minus sign.
Apparently things started with this:

z = cosθ
dz = d(cosθ) = -sinθ dθ

It looks to me like the author is doing an ordinary substitution (z = cosθ) before carrying out the integration.
 
Mark44 said:
Yes, there should be a minus sign.
Apparently things started with this:

z = cosθ
dz = d(cosθ) = -sinθ dθ

It looks to me like the author is doing an ordinary substitution (z = cosθ) before carrying out the integration.

Ah, I see. Thanks for the quick response!
 

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