Is this statement for proving inequalities true?

  • #1
Hello! What I'm wondering is if you want to prove an inequality, let's say ##a<b## and you already know that ##a>c## is true. If you are able to prove that ##c<b## is true, would that go on to imply that ##a<b## is true also? If this is correct, is it known as a theorem?

Thank you!
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
S.G. Janssens
Science Advisor
Education Advisor
938
715
No. Can you find a counterexample?
 
  • Like
Likes Physicist97
  • #3
PeroK
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Insights Author
Gold Member
2020 Award
15,664
7,789
Hello! What I'm wondering is if you want to prove an inequality, let's say ##a<b## and you already know that ##a>c## is true. If you are able to prove that ##c<b## is true, would that go on to imply that ##a<b## is true also? If this is correct, is it known as a theorem?

Thank you!
In other words:

##c < a## and ##c < b## implies ##a < b##

There's something not right there.
 
  • Like
Likes Physicist97
  • #4
Mhmm, yea I see where I went wrong haha. It was a pretty silly mistake, too :). Thank you everyone.
 

Related Threads on Is this statement for proving inequalities true?

  • Last Post
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
654
Replies
1
Views
478
Replies
36
Views
10K
  • Last Post
Replies
7
Views
7K
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Last Post
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • Last Post
Replies
19
Views
4K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Top