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Is this statement for proving inequalities true?

  1. Feb 7, 2016 #1
    Hello! What I'm wondering is if you want to prove an inequality, let's say ##a<b## and you already know that ##a>c## is true. If you are able to prove that ##c<b## is true, would that go on to imply that ##a<b## is true also? If this is correct, is it known as a theorem?

    Thank you!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 7, 2016 #2

    Krylov

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    No. Can you find a counterexample?
     
  4. Feb 7, 2016 #3

    PeroK

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    In other words:

    ##c < a## and ##c < b## implies ##a < b##

    There's something not right there.
     
  5. Feb 7, 2016 #4
    Mhmm, yea I see where I went wrong haha. It was a pretty silly mistake, too :). Thank you everyone.
     
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