Is z=0 a pole in the contour integral ∫sinθ/(a-sinθ)dθ from -\pi to \pi?

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zezima1
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Trying to teach myself contour integration, but I'm not so good at it. I want help with evaluating the closed integral:

∫sinθ/(a-sinθ)dθ from -[itex]\pi[/itex] to [itex]\pi[/itex]

So I substitute z= eiθ, and sinθ = -i/2(z-z-1) and dθ = -ie-iθdz

So our integral becomes:

∫-i/2(z-z-1)/(a+i/2(z-z-1) dz

Is this correct so far? If so, what do I do from this point? I suppose I want to find the order of the pole for this function?
 
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Where is the -i/z from dθ=-i/z dz?

So next you should convince yourself that the integration region is bounded by a simple curve, and then find all the poles inside this curve.
 
clamtrox said:
Where is the -i/z from dθ=-i/z dz?

oops, I forgot that on here :)

Okay, so I thought that's what I should do, but how do you determine the order of the pole for such a messy expression? i.e. how can you in general be sure that the pole you get in the denominator is not canceled off by something in the numerator? :)
 
aaaa202 said:
oops, I forgot that on here :)

Okay, so I thought that's what I should do, but how do you determine the order of the pole for such a messy expression? i.e. how can you in general be sure that the pole you get in the denominator is not canceled off by something in the numerator? :)

You simply plug the number into the numerator (remember that numerator here is everything besides the ##(z-a)^m## term where a is the pole) and if the result is not 0 then m is your order.

Your integral is correct, but in the case of finding poles, it is best to clean it up a bit.

##\displaystyle \int_{\partial \mathbb{D}} \frac{-\frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})}{a+ \frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})} dz##

(I rewrote it so the integral is easier to view by people)

You converted it correctly, since you substituted for ##e^{it}##, you are integrating around the unit disk and since ##t \in [-\pi,\pi]## this becomes contour integral now. The easiest way to find the poles would be to multiply through by (2z)/(2z) to get rid of all the fractions and then consider what make the integrand undefined. Like I mentioned above, simply write the integrand as ##\frac{g(z)}{(z-a)^m}## and verify ##g(a) \neq 0##. Then ##m## is the order of the pole ##a##. Then use the Residue Theorem.

The residues eventually come out to clean numbers, so don't be deterred by the messy algebra.

Edit: Some of your residues might be outside of ##\mathbb{D}## depending on your choice of ##a##. Remember to take that into account.
 
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scurty said:
Edit: Some of your residues might be outside of ##\mathbb{D}## depending on your choice of ##a##. Remember to take that into account.

There are three cases to consider here (assuming a is real): a = 0, 0<a≤1 and a>1. Only the latter one is of any interest, since a=0 is trivial, and the integral does not converge if 0<a≤1.
 
You say you are doing this as a contour integral in the complex plane but you haven't said what contour!
 
clamtrox said:
There are three cases to consider here (assuming a is real): a = 0, 0<a≤1 and a>1. Only the latter one is of any interest, since a=0 is trivial, and the integral does not converge if 0<a≤1.

a<-1 is also a valid case.
 
Has been a while, but going back into solving this integral.

So I end up with the integral:

∫ (z-1-z)/(2az + iz2-i) dz

Now the roots of the equations in the denominator are clearly poles. But how do I know, that you can't get higher order poles by reducing the fraction further? And secondly: The z-1 in the numerator is undefined for z=0 - will that make a problem?
 
zezima1 said:
Has been a while, but going back into solving this integral.

So I end up with the integral:

∫ (z-1-z)/(2az + iz2-i) dz

Now the roots of the equations in the denominator are clearly poles. But how do I know, that you can't get higher order poles by reducing the fraction further? And secondly: The z-1 in the numerator is undefined for z=0 - will that make a problem?

Clearly z=0 is a pole. In this case it's easy to find all the poles. Just write the integrand as [itex]\frac{P(z)}{Q(z)}[/itex] where P and Q are polynomials. Then find all the roots of Q, and those are the poles.
 
So my expression is not correct for evaluating the integral? Please show me how you get that ratio of polynomials you want? :(
 
zezima1 said:
So my expression is not correct for evaluating the integral? Please show me how you get that ratio of polynomials you want? :(

You just multiplied the denominator by ##2z## and then multiplied the top by 2/i for some reason? The whole reason for multiplying by ##\frac{2z}{2z}## is to get rid of the zeroes in the numerator (and "transfer" them down to the denominator, so to speak).

So, go back and multiply ##\displaystyle \int_{\partial \mathbb{D}} \frac{-\frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})}{a+ \frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})} dz## by 2z/2z and you will hopefully see what to do from there!
 
Well, in your version, where did the 1/iz term go?
The original integral is:

∫(1/2i(z-1-z)/(a-1/2i(z-z-1) dz/iz

How do you come to your version from that? Seems to me like you left out the iz term under dz, which I then put back in? Maybe I'm just a bit tired, but I should think something is wrong.
 
Hi all, I think I managed to find the poles inside the unit circle, which as ai - i√(a2-1) in agreement with my solutions notes. However, I also found that z=0 is a pole, which my book does agree on. Who is right, and why? :)