Is z=0 a pole in the contour integral ∫sinθ/(a-sinθ)dθ from -\pi to \pi?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the contour integral ∫sinθ/(a-sinθ)dθ from -π to π, with a focus on the substitution z = eiθ and the implications for identifying poles in the resulting expression. Participants are exploring the nature of poles in complex analysis, particularly at z=0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conversion of the integral to a contour integral and the identification of poles. Questions arise regarding the order of poles, the impact of the numerator on pole order, and the implications of undefined points in the expression.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the integral's structure, with some participants confirming the identification of z=0 as a pole. Multiple interpretations of the integral and its components are being examined, with no explicit consensus reached on the correctness of the expressions derived.

Contextual Notes

Participants note specific cases for the parameter a, such as a = 0, 01, which influence the convergence of the integral. The discussion also highlights the importance of ensuring that poles are correctly identified and accounted for in the context of the unit circle.

zezima1
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Trying to teach myself contour integration, but I'm not so good at it. I want help with evaluating the closed integral:

∫sinθ/(a-sinθ)dθ from -\pi to \pi

So I substitute z= e, and sinθ = -i/2(z-z-1) and dθ = -ie-iθdz

So our integral becomes:

∫-i/2(z-z-1)/(a+i/2(z-z-1) dz

Is this correct so far? If so, what do I do from this point? I suppose I want to find the order of the pole for this function?
 
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Where is the -i/z from dθ=-i/z dz?

So next you should convince yourself that the integration region is bounded by a simple curve, and then find all the poles inside this curve.
 
clamtrox said:
Where is the -i/z from dθ=-i/z dz?

oops, I forgot that on here :)

Okay, so I thought that's what I should do, but how do you determine the order of the pole for such a messy expression? i.e. how can you in general be sure that the pole you get in the denominator is not canceled off by something in the numerator? :)
 
aaaa202 said:
oops, I forgot that on here :)

Okay, so I thought that's what I should do, but how do you determine the order of the pole for such a messy expression? i.e. how can you in general be sure that the pole you get in the denominator is not canceled off by something in the numerator? :)

You simply plug the number into the numerator (remember that numerator here is everything besides the ##(z-a)^m## term where a is the pole) and if the result is not 0 then m is your order.

Your integral is correct, but in the case of finding poles, it is best to clean it up a bit.

##\displaystyle \int_{\partial \mathbb{D}} \frac{-\frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})}{a+ \frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})} dz##

(I rewrote it so the integral is easier to view by people)

You converted it correctly, since you substituted for ##e^{it}##, you are integrating around the unit disk and since ##t \in [-\pi,\pi]## this becomes contour integral now. The easiest way to find the poles would be to multiply through by (2z)/(2z) to get rid of all the fractions and then consider what make the integrand undefined. Like I mentioned above, simply write the integrand as ##\frac{g(z)}{(z-a)^m}## and verify ##g(a) \neq 0##. Then ##m## is the order of the pole ##a##. Then use the Residue Theorem.

The residues eventually come out to clean numbers, so don't be deterred by the messy algebra.

Edit: Some of your residues might be outside of ##\mathbb{D}## depending on your choice of ##a##. Remember to take that into account.
 
Last edited:
scurty said:
Edit: Some of your residues might be outside of ##\mathbb{D}## depending on your choice of ##a##. Remember to take that into account.

There are three cases to consider here (assuming a is real): a = 0, 0<a≤1 and a>1. Only the latter one is of any interest, since a=0 is trivial, and the integral does not converge if 0<a≤1.
 
You say you are doing this as a contour integral in the complex plane but you haven't said what contour!
 
clamtrox said:
There are three cases to consider here (assuming a is real): a = 0, 0<a≤1 and a>1. Only the latter one is of any interest, since a=0 is trivial, and the integral does not converge if 0<a≤1.

a<-1 is also a valid case.
 
Has been a while, but going back into solving this integral.

So I end up with the integral:

∫ (z-1-z)/(2az + iz2-i) dz

Now the roots of the equations in the denominator are clearly poles. But how do I know, that you can't get higher order poles by reducing the fraction further? And secondly: The z-1 in the numerator is undefined for z=0 - will that make a problem?
 
zezima1 said:
Has been a while, but going back into solving this integral.

So I end up with the integral:

∫ (z-1-z)/(2az + iz2-i) dz

Now the roots of the equations in the denominator are clearly poles. But how do I know, that you can't get higher order poles by reducing the fraction further? And secondly: The z-1 in the numerator is undefined for z=0 - will that make a problem?

Clearly z=0 is a pole. In this case it's easy to find all the poles. Just write the integrand as \frac{P(z)}{Q(z)} where P and Q are polynomials. Then find all the roots of Q, and those are the poles.
 
  • #10
So my expression is not correct for evaluating the integral? Please show me how you get that ratio of polynomials you want? :(
 
  • #11
zezima1 said:
So my expression is not correct for evaluating the integral? Please show me how you get that ratio of polynomials you want? :(

You just multiplied the denominator by ##2z## and then multiplied the top by 2/i for some reason? The whole reason for multiplying by ##\frac{2z}{2z}## is to get rid of the zeroes in the numerator (and "transfer" them down to the denominator, so to speak).

So, go back and multiply ##\displaystyle \int_{\partial \mathbb{D}} \frac{-\frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})}{a+ \frac{i}{2} (z-z^{-1})} dz## by 2z/2z and you will hopefully see what to do from there!
 
  • #12
Well, in your version, where did the 1/iz term go?
The original integral is:

∫(1/2i(z-1-z)/(a-1/2i(z-z-1) dz/iz

How do you come to your version from that? Seems to me like you left out the iz term under dz, which I then put back in? Maybe I'm just a bit tired, but I should think something is wrong.
 
  • #13
Hi all, I think I managed to find the poles inside the unit circle, which as ai - i√(a2-1) in agreement with my solutions notes. However, I also found that z=0 is a pole, which my book does agree on. Who is right, and why? :)
 

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