Jacobian of the transformation

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on performing a double integral transformation involving the Jacobian. The user attempts to transform the integral \(\int_0^a {\int_0^b {f\left( {x - y} \right)dxdy} }\) by defining new variables \(s := x - y\) and \(t := x + y\), leading to confusion regarding the limits of integration. The key takeaway is that the limits of integration must remain constant and independent of the transformed variables, and the Jacobian factor of 2 is necessary for the area transformation. The user also references a specific integral form from their textbook, which illustrates the relationship between the variables in the context of the transformation.

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  • Understanding of double integrals in calculus
  • Familiarity with Jacobian transformations
  • Knowledge of variable substitution techniques
  • Basic concepts of integral limits and regions of integration
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Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying calculus, multivariable functions, and integral transformations. This discussion is beneficial for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of Jacobian transformations and double integrals.

Niles
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Homework Statement


Hi

I wish to perform an integral of the form

<br /> \int_0^a {\int_0^b {f\left( {x - y} \right)dxdy} } <br />

What I do first is to define s := x-y, and ds = dx. Then we get

<br /> \int_0^a {\int_{-y}^{b-y} {f\left( {s} \right)dsdy} } <br />

Then I can define t := x+y, so dt = dy. Then I get

<br /> \int_{x}^{x+a} {\int_{-y}^{b-y} {f\left( {s} \right)dsdt} } <br />

I also have to multiply by 2, since it is the Jacobian of the transformation. But look at the limits: It doesn't seem to make things easier. Where am I going wrong?
 
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Well, what, exactly do you want to do with that? You obviously can't "do" the integral without knowing what f is. However, your limits of integration in the final integral makes no sense. From the first form, since the limits of integration are constants, the integral does not depend on x or y but your last form for the integral clearly does.

The region of integration in the x,y plane is a rectangle with sides parallel to the x and y axes. In the u,v plane it is still a rectangle but with sides at 45 degrees to the u and v axes. Depending on what a and b are, you would probably have to divide the area into two separate integrations. In any case, I don't see that change of variable helping.
 


The reason why I am asking is because in my book they write the following

<br /> I = \int_0^a {dt_1 \int_0^a {dt_2 \,F(x,t_1 - t_2 )} } F(y,t_1 - t_2 ) = a\int_0^a {dt\,\,F(x,t)F(y, - t)} <br />

I cannot quite see how the second equality-sign comes about. I thought it came from substitution, as above.
 

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