Kinetic Energy Calculation Using Average Velocity

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To calculate kinetic energy (KE) for a particle with varying velocity, it's better to average the KE values rather than the velocities themselves. The position function provided allows for the determination of velocity and acceleration through differentiation. Evaluating the velocity at the start and end of the time interval gives the KE at those points, and the difference represents the work done. This approach aligns with calculus-based physics principles. The calculations yield consistent results, confirming the method's validity.
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I need to find kinetic energy, but I am given several velocities over 4 seconds. Would it be correct if I use the average velocity to calculate the KE?

question:

A force acts on a 3.0 kg particle-like object in such a way that the position of the object as a function of time is given by x=3.0t-4.0t^2+1.0t^3, with x in meters and t in seconds. Find the work done on the object by the force from t=0 to t= 4.0s.
 
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Does the same object have a velocity that varies with time?
If so, your KE also varies with time and perhaps you should report the several values for KE. If you must average, better to average the KE's rather than the velocities.
 
Yea the velocity changes with time. So average the KE's?
 
Yikes, that x=3.0t-4.0t^2+1.0t^3 is more additional information that I wanted to see!
Looks like acceleration varying with time. One approach would be to figure out the velocity function, then evaluate it at time 0 and time 4. Then you can find the KE at the beginning and the KE at the end. The difference should be the work done.

Is this question from a calculus class? If so, you could differentiate the x function to get the velocity and acceleration. Then integrate dW = Fdx to get the work done.
 
Nah it's from ap physics which is calculus based. Thanks for the advice.
 
It works out quite easily both ways - I even got the same answer both ways. About 175*m.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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