Kvl Left Side: Can't Understand Member?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of mutual inductance and its implications in a circuit involving two inductors. Participants are trying to clarify the relationships between the inductors and the induced voltages, focusing on the coefficient of coupling and its effect on the calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about a specific member related to the inductors.
  • Another participant identifies the inductors as L1 and L2, explaining that the current I2 induces a voltage in L1, quantified as I2*M.
  • Concerns are raised about a potential mistake in calculating the mutual inductance M, suggesting it should be j40 instead of j50 due to the coefficient of coupling being 0.8.
  • Participants calculate M as 0.008 based on the provided values for L1 and L2, asserting that the impedance should be 40j.
  • There is a proposal that if k=0.8, then an additional term of 0.8 I2 should be included to account for the effect of the other coil.
  • Another participant references a computation that leads to a different value for M, questioning the validity of the previous calculations and suggesting that a mistake may have been made.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the correct value of M or the implications of the coefficient of coupling. Multiple competing views and calculations are presented, indicating ongoing disagreement and uncertainty.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference different values and calculations for mutual inductance and impedance, highlighting potential errors in earlier computations. The discussion is limited by the assumptions made regarding the inductors and their coupling.

nhrock3
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2efrnmf.jpg

i can't understand how they how the member of which i point too
 
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You haven't designated the two inductors, so I'm going to call the inductor which is common to the two loops L1, and the other inductor L2.

The term you're asking about comes about because the current I2 passes through L2 and induces a voltage in L1. The voltage induced in L1 has the value I2*M.

I think you may have made a mistake in calculating M. It looks like you didn't properly take into account the coefficient of coupling which is .8. Shouldn't M be j40 instead of j50?
 
L1 is 0.02
L2 is 0.005
is there still a mistake?
 
nhrock3 said:
L1 is 0.02
L2 is 0.005
is there still a mistake?

M = .8 * SQRT(.02*.005) = .8 * .01 = .008

then its impedance would be 40j, not 50j.
 
so if k=0.8 than we need to add 0.8 I2
this is the affect of the other coil
??
 
they say jwM=j*5000*0.01=50
 
Look at the computation you have in your image:

0.8 = K = |M|/SQRT(L1*L2) => |M| = .8*SQRT(L1*L2). (What happened to the .8?)

From that M = .008

You should be able to find K = M/SQRT(L1*L2) in any textbook, or here:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inductance

Perhaps "they" have made a mistake; it does happen.
 

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