Lagrangian for Applied Torque on a Hoop with Bead

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on applying the Lagrangian mechanics framework to analyze the motion of a bead on a hoop under the influence of an applied torque. The applied torque is defined as τ = I ψ''[t], where I represents the moment of inertia. The Lagrangian is formulated as L = T - V, with T being the total kinetic energy and V the potential energy, specifically T = 1/2 m (v1^2 + v2^2) and V = -mgRcosθ. The user seeks clarification on whether the Euler-Lagrange equation should equate to the applied torque rather than zero, indicating a shift from traditional closed system analysis.

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Homework Statement



I included the problem as an attachment. My difficulty lies within understanding how to account for the applied torque within the Lagrangian and subsequent Euler-Lagrange equations, which is what I want to use to determine the equations of motion of the bead on the hoop through ψ''[t] and θ''[t].


Homework Equations



My physical understanding of the system tells me that the torque induces an angular velocity about the z axis which contributes to the kinetic energy of the particle. In addition, the particle's velocity along the path of the hoop contributes to the kinetic energy of the particle.

The applied torque is:
τ = I ψ''[t]

The Lagrangian is naturally:
L = T-V = total kinetic energy of the system - potential energy
T = 1/2 m v2 = 1/2 m v12 + 1/2 m v22
v1 = Rθ'[t]
v2 = ψ'[t]Rcosθ
V = -mgRcosθ

Euler-Lagrange with q as the generalized displacement variable:
d/dt(∂L/∂q'[t]) - ∂L/∂q = τ?

I'm not sure if it is appropriate to set this equal to the applied torque, rather than 0 (which is what I've been used to with closed systems).

Am I on the right track here?
 
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