Ley-lines
SGT said:
Welcome to the forum Yerdiss! You are free to disagree with my opinions, but you must refrain from posting personal offenses.
Thank you for the welcome. I offer you my apology for stating things rather harshly. My point does remain, however, that it is better not to state anything, than to discredit a notion that (while perhaps improbable) is not impossible, without any arguments.
From Wikipedia
Dowsing has been shown to perform no better than chance in controlled experiments. To accept dowsers claims as evidence is unacceptable in a scientific forum.
I wonder, have you read the sources Hypatia referred to? If so, I would love to read your review of them, to back up your statements. In her reference, she noted no such thing as dowsing. A brief check through the web on these works is inconclusive in this regard. It seems that, in order to reject these, one would have to read them.
The OP made no assumptions. He posted a question.
Rhetorics. Now add some logic to explain what I meant: A and B and C seem to be the case. Can someone give me D so that D => A and B and C ? This assumes things. The proper answer is either: "D", hence true, or "not A", "Not B", or "Not C", hence false.
What do you mean by disproving the existence of ley-lines? The existence of alignments between some points is evident and I accept it. If you want to baptize those alignments as ley-lines, I accept the name. It is as good as any other.
It is making creditable that, due to the nature of the electromagnetic fields and gravity fields, ley-lines cannot exist as they are described. This statement was added in reference to your first comment:
Ley-lines are not a scientific mystery. They are New Age BS, so there is nothing to be measured.
In which I read that you do not believe ley-lines exist. Even when you accept the definition, it is still possible to show that the definition is not compatible with the model of natural science that you accept as true.
About disproving that those lines have any influence, it is equivalent of asking you to disprove that there is an invisible gnome floating above your shoulder while you read this post. It is impossible to prove an universal negative.
If someone claims that there is such influence, the burden of the proof is on the claimant. Give some evidence and I will be glad to analize it. If the evidence is convincing I will accept the claim.
I partially agree, yet with such an attitude, we will not accomplish much in this matter. The initial question leads me to believe the original poster wishes to learn more. So, either give him cause to doubt his assumption that there could be an influence people can notice, or give him a notion on why this may be. Ideally, this is something that can be scientifically backed up. Non-ideally, it leads to a choice which of the options to believe.
To illustrate, an example. In early Mesopotamia, it was generally accepted the Earth was flat. When it was argued by Pythagoras, amongst others, that the Earth was round, that in itself was not proof but rather a matter of debate. However, Aristotle's proof was in itself a counterproof of the flat earth, for the simple reason that round => not flat. Only by having this counterproof could the debate be ended, for else it would remain a matter of debate and belief.
In this matter of ley-lines, there are three teachings. Until one of them comes with a conclusive prove that the others are wrong, there will not be an end to the discussion.
For more information, try this:
http://www.sciencedaily.com/encyclopedia/ley_line
It should provide sufficient to ponder over whilst determining which side to choose.