Lightspeed: does the definition of time make it constant?

[JUboy]

If at the point A of space there is a clock, an observer at A can determine the time values of events in the immediate proximity of A by finding the positions of the hands which are simultaneous with these events. If there is at the point B of space another clock in all respects resembling the one at A, it is possible for an observer at B to determine the time values of events in the immediate neighbourhood of B. But it is not possible without further assumption to compare, in respect of time, an event at A with an event at B. We have so far defined only an ``A time'' and a ``B time.'' We have not defined a common ``time'' for A and B, for the latter cannot be defined at all unless we establish by definition that the ``time'' required by light to travel from A to B equals the ``time'' it requires to travel from B to A. Let a ray of light start at the ``A time'' from A towards B, let it at the ``B time'' be reflected at B in the direction of A, and arrive again at A at the ``A time'' .

In accordance with definition the two clocks synchronize if

T(b)-T(a) = T'(a) -T(b)

this is from electrodynamics of moving bodies einstein's original SR paper.tell me when we defined a common time for A and B didnt we define lightspeed to be constant

 

[jtbell]

Yes, in the early 1980s the meter was re-defined as the distance that light travels in 1/299792458 second, so the speed of light is now exactly 299792458 m/sec.

Before that happened, physicists had spent several decades measuring the speed of light with greater and greater precision. Eventually the biggest remaining uncertainty was in the old definition of the meter (the distance between two marks on a platinum-iridium bar in a basement somewhere in Paris). The definition of a second (based on the oscillation of an atomic transition) was more precise.

So we can still do experiments like the old "speed of light" experiments, except that now, instead of measuring the speed of light more and more precisely, they make the definition of the meter more and more precise.

 

[pervect]

this is from electrodynamics of moving bodies einstein's original SR paper.tell me when we defined a common time for A and B didnt we define lightspeed to be constant

Not quite. This section defines lightspeed to be isotropic (the same in all directions), not necessarily constant.

A point that can and should be made is that this same definition of clock synchronization that makes the velocity of light isotropic makes the velocities of other particles isotropic if their energy or momentum specified . For example, the same clock synch method makes the speed of 1 Gev electrons isotropic as well as the speed of light - not surprising, really, since 1 Gev electons travel at essentially lightspeed (this may not have been known experimentally in Einstein's time but is well known nowdays).

The same clock synch definition makes the velocity of electrons of other energies isotropic as well, even low energy ones. And it's not limited to electrons, any particle of a known mass and specified energy will have an isotropic velocity only when clocks are synchornized in the same manner that makes light isotropic.

In addition, momentum could also be specified as well as energy.

Thus the constancy of the speed of light is not the only reason for adopting Einstein's clock synchronization method.

 

[JUboy]

Not quite. This section defines lightspeed to be isotropic (the same in all directions), not necessarily constant.

U da man,pervect!i had misunderstood the thing pretty badly i see now. thanks.